Initial checkin

pages/About.md

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+- This document was created using the November 8, 2024 version of the **2024- 2028 Extra Class Question Pool Release**, available here: https://ncvec.org/downloads/2024-2028%20Extra%20Class%20Question%20Pool%20and%20Syllabus%20Public%20Release%20with%202nd%20Errata%20Nov%208%202024.docx
+	- This is provided for the use of Hams who use (or would like to use!) Logseq for personal knowledge management, by AF0CX.
+	- conversion to Logseq markdown format was hobbled together with judicious use of `sed`and `grep`
+- Refer to the [[Extra Syllabus]], which has links to Subelements, Sections and Questions.
+	- Example 1: [[SUBELEMENT E1]] for a subelement
+	- Example 2: [[E1A]] for a section in that subelement
+	- Example 3: [[E1A01]] for a question in that section
+- It is up to the person studying to embellish and take notes based on the links.
+	- for example, if you are studying and see something related to question [[T0A01]], you can simply link it or use a hashtag.
+	- You can further expand your knowledge by putting double brackets around terms or concepts that you want to define, such as [[MHz]] or [[Capacitance]].
+		- Hint: highlight words you want to study and then go to the linked page, and expand "unlinked references" to find questions that relate to that topic.
+	- As you progress, you will have a graph of meaningful links and relations that should provide you a strong basis for expanding your knowledge beyond "just passing" and understanding the material at a deeper level.
+- Questions retain the correct answer (A-D) in the header, as well as any references to other documents.
+	- When running through flash cards, try to remember what the correct answer is *before* revealing the answer.
+- Disclaimers
+	- This document is provided as-is and without any kind of warranty. I have attempted to make sure that it is error-free, but mistakes can happen. Use at your own risk.

pages/E0A.md

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+E0A Safety: RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials; grounding
+
+- [[E0A01]] (B)
+What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod? #card
+	- [[A.]] Prevent static build up on power lines
+	- [[B.]] Lightning charge dissipation
+	- [[C.]] Reduce RF current flow between pieces of equipment
+	- [[D.]] Protect breaker panel from power surges
+- [[E0A02]] (B)
+When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor’s home, what must you do? #card
+	- [[A.]] Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
+	- [[B.]] Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limits
+	- [[C.]] Ensure signals from your station are less than the controlled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
+	- [[D.]] Ensure signals from your station are less than the uncontrolled maximum permissible emission (MPE) limits
+- [[E0A03]] (C)
+Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive? #card
+	- [[A.]] 300 kHz - 3 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 3 - 30 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 30 - 300 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 300 - 3000 MHz
+- [[E0A04]] (C)
+When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations? #card
+	- [[A.]] Each transmitter that produces 20 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
+	- [[B.]] Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 25 percent
+	- [[C.]] Each transmitter that produces 5 percent or more of its MPE limit in areas where the total MPE limit is exceeded
+	- [[D.]] Each transmitter operating with a duty cycle greater than 50 percent
+- [[E0A05]] (B)
+What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] Microwaves are ionizing radiation
+	- [[B.]] The high gain antennas commonly used can result in high exposure levels
+	- [[C.]] Microwaves are in the frequency range where wave velocity is higher
+	- [[D.]] The extremely high frequency energy can damage the joints of antenna structures
+- [[E0A06]] (D)
+Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] The body reacts to electromagnetic radiation from both the E and H fields
+	- [[B.]] Ground reflections and scattering cause the field strength to vary with location
+	- [[C.]] E field and H field radiation intensity peaks can occur at different locations
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E0A07]] (B)
+What is meant by “100% tie-off” regarding tower safety? #card
+	- [[A.]] All loose ropes and guys secured to a fixed structure
+	- [[B.]] At least one lanyard attached to the tower at all times
+	- [[C.]] All tools secured to the climber’s harness
+	- [[D.]] All circuit breakers feeding power to the tower must be tied closed with tape, cable, or ties
+- [[E0A08]] (C)
+What does SAR measure? #card
+	- [[A.]] Signal attenuation ratio
+	- [[B.]] Signal amplification rating
+	- [[C.]] The rate at which RF energy is absorbed by the body
+	- [[D.]] The rate of RF energy reflected from stationary terrain
+- [[E0A09]] (C)
+Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations? #card
+	- [[A.]] Transceivers with less than 7 watts of RF output
+	- [[B.]] Antennas that radiate only in the near field
+	- [[C.]] Hand-held transceivers sold before May 3, 2021
+	- [[D.]] Dish antennas less than one meter in diameter
+- [[E0A10]] (A)
+When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters? 
+	- [[A.]] An evaluation must always be performed
+	- [[B.]] When the ERP of the station is less than 10 watts
+	- [[C.]] When the station’s operating mode is CW
+	- [[D.]] When the output power from the transmitter is less than 100 watts
+- [[E0A11]] (D)
+To what should lanyards be attached while climbing? #card
+	- [[A.]] Antenna mast
+	- [[B.]] Guy brackets
+	- [[C.]] Tower rungs
+	- [[D.]] Tower legs
+- [[E0A12]] (A)
+Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground? #card
+	- [[A.]] Above the climber’s head level
+	- [[B.]] To the belt of the fall-arrest harness
+	- [[C.]] Even with the climber's waist
+	- [[D.]] To the next lowes

pages/E1A.md

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+E1A Frequency privileges; signal frequency range; automatic message forwarding; stations aboard ships or aircraft; power restriction on 630- and 2200-meter bands
+
+- [[E1A01]] (D) [97.305, 97.307(b)]
+Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] USB is not used on 20-meter phone
+	- [[B.]] The lower 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
+	- [[C.]] 14.348 MHz is outside the 20-meter band
+	- [[D.]] The upper 1 kHz of the signal is outside the 20-meter band
+- [[E1A02]] (D) [97.301, 97.305]
+When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band? #card
+	- [[A.]] The exact lower band edge
+	- [[B.]] 300 Hz above the lower band edge
+	- [[C.]] 1 kHz above the lower band edge
+	- [[D.]] 3 kHz above the lower band edge
+- [[E1A03]] (C) [97.305, 97.307(b)]
+What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] 14.0708 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 14.1002 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 14.1472 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 14.3490 MHz
+- [[E1A04]] (C) [97.301, 97.305]
+May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone? #card
+	- [[A.]] Yes, the entire signal will be inside the SSB allocation for Extra class operators
+	- [[B.]] Yes, the displayed frequency is within the 75-meter phone band segment
+	- [[C.]] No, the sideband components will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment
+	- [[D.]] No, US stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz
+- [[E1A05]] (C) [97.5]
+Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States? #card
+	- [[A.]] Only a person with an FCC Marine Radio license grant
+	- [[B.]] Only a person named in an amateur station license grant
+	- [[C.]] Any person holding an FCC issued amateur license or who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation
+	- [[D.]] Any person named in an amateur station license grant or a person holding an unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit
+- [[E1A06]] (B) [97.303(h)(1)]
+What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation? #card
+	- [[A.]] At the lowest frequency of the channel
+	- [[B.]] At the center frequency of the channel
+	- [[C.]] At the highest frequency of the channel
+	- [[D.]] On any frequency where the signal’s sidebands are within the channel
+- [[E1A07]] (C) [97.313(k)]
+What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
+	- [[B.]] 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
+	- [[C.]] 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
+	- [[D.]] 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
+- [[E1A08]] (B) [97.219]
+If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation? #card
+	- [[A.]] The control operator of the packet bulletin board station
+	- [[B.]] The control operator of the originating station
+	- [[C.]] The control operators of all the stations in the system
+	- [[D.]] The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications
+- [[E1A09]] (D) [97.313(l)]
+Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
+	- [[B.]] 100 watts PEP (peak envelope power)
+	- [[C.]] 1 watt EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
+	- [[D.]] 5 watts EIRP (equivalent isotropic radiated power)
+- [[E1A10]] (A) [97.11]
+If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? #card
+	- [[A.]] Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft
+	- [[B.]] The amateur station operator must agree not to transmit when the main radio of the ship or aircraft is in use
+	- [[C.]] The amateur station must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply
+	- [[D.]] The amateur station must operate only in specific segments of the amateur service HF and VHF bands
+- [[E1A11]] (B) [97.5]
+What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters? #card
+	- [[A.]] Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement
+	- [[B.]] Any FCC-issued amateur license
+	- [[C.]] Only General class or higher amateur licenses
+	- [[D.]] An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit

pages/E1B.md

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+E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions; spurious emissions; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
+
+- [[E1B01]] (D) [97.3]
+Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? #card
+	- [[A.]] An amateur station transmission made without the proper call sign identification
+	- [[B.]] A signal transmitted to prevent its detection by any station other than the intended recipient
+	- [[C.]] Any transmitted signal that unintentionally interferes with another licensed radio station and whose levels exceed 40 dB below the fundamental power level
+	- [[D.]] An emission outside the signal’s necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted
+- [[E1B02]] (A) [97.307(f)(2)]
+Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands? #card
+	- [[A.]] 3 kHz
+	- [[B.]] 10 kHz
+	- [[C.]] 15 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 20 kHz
+- [[E1B03]] (A) [97.13]
+Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? #card
+	- [[A.]] 1 mile
+	- [[B.]] 3 miles
+	- [[C.]] 10 miles
+	- [[D.]] 30 miles
+- [[E1B04]] (C) [97.303(b)]
+What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reduce the repeater antenna HAAT (Height Above Average Terrain)
+	- [[B.]] File an FAA NOTAM (Notice to Air Missions) with the repeater system's ERP, call sign, and six-character grid locator
+	- [[C.]] Cease operation or make changes to the repeater that mitigate the interference
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1B05]] (C) [97.3]
+What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? #card
+	- [[A.]] An area surrounding the FCC monitoring station in Laurel, Maryland 
+	- [[B.]] An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area
+	- [[C.]] An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory
+	- [[D.]] An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral
+- [[E1B06]] (A) [97.15]
+Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport? #card
+	- [[A.]] You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of the FCC rules
+	- [[B.]] You may have to enter the height above ground in meters, and the latitude and longitude in degrees, minutes, and seconds on the FAA website 
+	- [[C.]] You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
+	- [[D.]] You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority per Part 119 of the FAA regulations
+- [[E1B07]] (C) [97.15]
+To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply? #card
+	- [[A.]] Homeowners associations
+	- [[B.]] FAA tower height limits
+	- [[C.]] State and local zoning
+	- [[D.]] Use of wireless devices in vehicles
+- [[E1B08]] (D) [97.121]
+What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design? #card
+	- [[A.]] The amateur station must cease operation
+	- [[B.]] The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies below 30 MHz
+	- [[C.]] The amateur station must cease operation on all frequencies above 30 MHz
+	- [[D.]] The amateur station must avoid transmitting during certain hours on frequencies that cause the interference
+- [[E1B09]] (C) [97.407]
+Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules? #card
+	- [[A.]] Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators
+	- [[B.]] Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class
+	- [[C.]] Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served
+	- [[D.]] Only stations meeting the FCC Part 97 technical standards for operation during an emergency
+- [[E1B10]] (A) [97.407]
+What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules? #card
+	- [[A.]] All amateur service frequencies authorized to the control operator
+	- [[B.]] Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF, and UHF bands
+	- [[C.]] Specific local government channels
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1B11]] (B) [97.15]
+What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures? #card
+	- [[A.]] No limitations may be placed on antenna size or placement
+	- [[B.]] Reasonable accommodations of amateur radio must be made
+	- [[C.]] Such structures must be permitted when use for emergency communications can be demonstrated
+	- [[D.]] Such structures must be permitted if certified by a registered professional engineer

pages/E1C.md

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+E1C Automatic and remote control; band-specific regulations; operating in and communicating with foreign countries; spurious emission standards; HF modulation index limit; band-specific rules
+
+- [[E1C01]] (D) [97.303]
+What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters? #card
+	- [[A.]] 60 Hz
+	- [[B.]] 170 Hz
+	- [[C.]] 1.5 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 2.8 kHz
+- [[E1C02]] (C) [97.117]
+Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? #card
+	- [[A.]] Third party traffic must be limited to that intended for the exclusive use of government and non-Government Organization (NGOs) involved in emergency relief activities
+	- [[B.]] All transmissions must be in English
+	- [[C.]] Communications must be limited to those incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1C03]] (B) [97.303(g)]
+How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band? #card
+	- [[A.]] Operators must not operate until approval is received
+	- [[B.]] Operators may operate after 30 days, providing they have not been told that their station is within 1 kilometer of PLC systems using those frequencies
+	- [[C.]] Operators may not operate until a test signal has been transmitted in coordination with the local power company
+	- [[D.]] Operations may commence immediately, and may continue unless interference is reported by the UTC
+- [[E1C04]] (A)
+What is an IARP? #card
+	- [[A.]] A permit that allows US amateurs to operate in certain countries of the Americas
+	- [[B.]] The internal amateur radio practices policy of the FCC
+	- [[C.]] An indication of increased antenna reflected power
+	- [[D.]] A forecast of intermittent aurora radio propagation
+- [[E1C05]] (B) [97.221(c)(1), 97.115(c)]
+Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled? #card
+	- [[A.]] Never
+	- [[B.]] Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
+	- [[C.]] Only when transmitting SSB or CW
+	- [[D.]] On any mode approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration
+- [[E1C06]] (C)
+Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted? #card
+	- [[A.]] You must identify in the official language of the country in which you are operating
+	- [[B.]] The US embassy must approve of your operation
+	- [[C.]] You must have a copy of FCC Public Notice DA 16-1048
+	- [[D.]] You must append "/CEPT" to your call sign
+- [[E1C07]] (D) [97.303(g)]
+What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands? #card
+	- [[A.]] A special endorsement must be requested from the FCC
+	- [[B.]] An environmental impact statement must be filed with the Department of the Interior
+	- [[C.]] Operators must inform the FAA of their intent to operate, giving their call sign and distance to the nearest runway
+	- [[D.]] Operators must inform the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) of their call sign and coordinates of the station
+- [[E1C08]] (B) [97.213]
+What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station’s transmissions if its control link malfunctions? #card
+	- [[A.]] 30 seconds
+	- [[B.]] 3 minutes
+	- [[C.]] 5 minutes
+	- [[D.]] 10 minutes
+- [[E1C09]] (B) [97.307]
+What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.5
+	- [[B.]] 1.0
+	- [[C.]] 2.0
+	- [[D.]] 3.0
+- [[E1C10]] (A) [97.307]
+What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission? #card
+	- [[A.]] - 43 dB 
+	- [[B.]] - 53 dB
+	- [[C.]] - 63 dB
+	- [[D.]] - 73 dB
+- [[E1C11]] (A) [97.5]
+Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? #card
+	- [[A.]] CEPT
+	- [[B.]] IARP
+	- [[C.]] ITU reciprocal license
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1C12]] (D) [97.305(c)]
+In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted? #card
+	- [[A.]] None
+	- [[B.]] Only the top 3 kHz
+	- [[C.]] Only the bottom 3 kHz
+	- [[D.]] The entire band

pages/E1D.md

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+E1D Amateur Space and Earth stations; telemetry and telecommand rules; identification of balloon transmissions; one-way communications
+
+- [[E1D01]] (A) [97.3]
+What is the definition of telemetry? #card
+	- [[A.]] One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument
+	- [[B.]] Two-way transmissions in excess of 1000 feet
+	- [[C.]] Two-way transmissions of data
+	- [[D.]] One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance
+- [[E1D02]] (B) [97.211(b)]
+Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages? #card
+	- [[A.]] Telecommand signals to terrestrial repeaters 
+	- [[B.]] Telecommand signals from a space telecommand station
+	- [[C.]] Auxiliary relay links carrying repeater audio 
+	- [[D.]] Mesh network backbone nodes 
+- [[E1D03]] (B) [97.3(a)(45)]
+What is a space telecommand station? #card
+	- [[A.]] An amateur station located on the surface of the Earth for communication with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites
+	- [[B.]] An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify, or terminate functions of a space station
+	- [[C.]] An amateur station located in a satellite or a balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
+	- [[D.]] An amateur station that receives telemetry from a satellite or balloon more than 50 kilometers above the surface of the Earth
+- [[E1D04]] (A) [97.119(a)]
+Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station? #card
+	- [[A.]] Call sign
+	- [[B.]] The output power of the balloon transmitter
+	- [[C.]] The station's six-character Maidenhead grid locator
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1D05]] (D) [97.213(d)]
+What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth’s surface? #card
+	- [[A.]] A photocopy of the station license
+	- [[B.]] A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the station licensee
+	- [[C.]] A label with the name, address, and telephone number of the control operator
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1D06]] (A) [97.215(c)]
+What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand? #card
+	- [[A.]] 1 watt
+	- [[B.]] 2 watts
+	- [[C.]] 5 watts
+	- [[D.]] 100 watts
+- [[E1D07]] (A) [97.207]
+Which of the following HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations? #card
+	- [[A.]] 40 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
+	- [[B.]] 30 meters, 17 meters, and 10 meters
+	- [[C.]] Only 10 meters
+	- [[D.]] Satellite operation is permitted on all HF bands
+- [[E1D08]] (D) [97.207]
+Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? #card
+	- [[A.]] 6 meters and 2 meters
+	- [[B.]] 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters
+	- [[C.]] 2 meters and 1.25 meters
+	- [[D.]] 2 meters
+- [[E1D09]] (B) [97.207]
+Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations? #card
+	- [[A.]] 70 centimeters only
+	- [[B.]] 70 centimeters and 13 centimeters
+	- [[C.]] 70 centimeters and 33 centimeters
+	- [[D.]] 33 centimeters and 13 centimeters
+- [[E1D10]] (B) [97.211]
+Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station? #card
+	- [[A.]] Any amateur station approved by AMSAT
+	- [[B.]] Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee
+	- [[C.]] Any amateur station so designated by the ITU
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1D11]] (D) [97.209]
+Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? #card
+	- [[A.]] Any amateur licensee who has successfully completed the AMSAT space communications course
+	- [[B.]] Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operators
+	- [[C.]] Only those of Amateur Extra class operators
+	- [[D.]] Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator
+- [[E1D12]] (A) [97.207(e), 97.203(g)]
+Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] A space station, beacon station, or telecommand station
+	- [[B.]] A local repeater or linked repeater station
+	- [[C.]] A message forwarding station or automatically controlled digital station
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct 

pages/E1E.md

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+E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; reimbursement; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
+
+- [[E1E01]] (A) [97.527]
+For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed? #card
+	- [[A.]] Preparing, processing, administering, and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio operator license
+	- [[B.]] Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course
+	- [[C.]] No expenses are authorized for reimbursement
+	- [[D.]] Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials
+- [[E1E02]] (C) [97.523]
+Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations? #card
+	- [[A.]] The VEs
+	- [[B.]] The FCC
+	- [[C.]] The VECs
+	- [[D.]] The ARRL
+- [[E1E03]] (C) [97.521]
+What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? #card
+	- [[A.]] A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations
+	- [[B.]] An organization paid by the volunteer examiner team to publicize and schedule examinations
+	- [[C.]] An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate, prepare, and administer amateur operator license examinations
+	- [[D.]] The person who has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager
+- [[E1E04]] (D) [97.509, 97.525]
+What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner? #card
+	- [[A.]] Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted
+	- [[B.]] The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau
+	- [[C.]] The prospective VE must obtain accreditation from the FCC
+	- [[D.]] A VEC must confirm that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner
+- [[E1E05]] (B) [97.509(j)]
+What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? #card
+	- [[A.]] Maintain the application form with the VEC’s records
+	- [[B.]] Return the application document to the examinee
+	- [[C.]] Send the application form to the FCC and inform the FCC of the grade
+	- [[D.]] Destroy the application form
+- [[E1E06]] (C) [97.509]
+Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? #card
+	- [[A.]] The VEC coordinating the session
+	- [[B.]] The designated monitoring VE
+	- [[C.]] Each administering VE
+	- [[D.]] Only the VE session manager
+- [[E1E07]] (B) [97.509, 97.511]
+What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner’s instructions during an amateur operator license examination? #card
+	- [[A.]] Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination
+	- [[B.]] Immediately terminate the candidate’s examination
+	- [[C.]] Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results
+	- [[D.]] Immediately terminate everyone’s examination and close the session
+- [[E1E08]] (C) [97.509]
+To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? #card
+	- [[A.]] Employees of the VE
+	- [[B.]] Friends of the VE
+	- [[C.]] Relatives of the VE as listed in the FCC rules
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1E09]] (A) [97.509]
+What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? #card
+	- [[A.]] Revocation of the VE’s amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE’s amateur operator license grant
+	- [[B.]] A fine of up to $1,000 per occurrence
+	- [[C.]] A sentence of up to one year in prison
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1E10]] (C) [97.509(m)]
+What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license? #card
+	- [[A.]] They must collect and send the documents directly to the FCC
+	- [[B.]] They must collect and submit the documents to the coordinating VEC for grading
+	- [[C.]] They must submit the application document to the coordinating VEC according to the coordinating VEC instructions
+	- [[D.]] They must return the documents to the applicant for submission to the FCC according to the FCC instructions
+- [[E1E11]] (B) [97.509(i)]
+What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? #card
+	- [[A.]] Photocopy all examination documents and forward them to the FCC for processing
+	- [[B.]] Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the administering VE requirements
+	- [[C.]] Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct

pages/E1F.md

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+E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; prohibited communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; Canadian amateurs operating in the US; special temporary authority
+
+- [[E1F01]] (B) [97.305]
+On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? #card
+	- [[A.]] Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz
+	- [[B.]] Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz
+	- [[C.]] Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz
+	- [[D.]] Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz
+- [[E1F02]] (C) [97.107]
+What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada? #card
+	- [[A.]] None, they must obtain a US license
+	- [[B.]] Full privileges of the General class license on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
+	- [[C.]] The operating terms and conditions of the Canadian amateur service license, not to exceed US Amateur Extra class license privileges
+	- [[D.]] Full privileges, up to and including those of the Amateur Extra class license, on the 80-, 40-, 20-, 15-, and 10-meter bands
+- [[E1F03]] (D) [97.315]
+Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? #card
+	- [[A.]] Gain is less than 23 dB when driven by power of 10 watts or less
+	- [[B.]] The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit
+	- [[C.]] It was manufactured and certificated in a country which has a reciprocal certification agreement with the FCC
+	- [[D.]] The amplifier is constructed or modified by an amateur radio operator for use at an amateur station
+- [[E1F04]] (A) [97.3]
+Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? #card
+	- [[A.]] A line roughly parallel to and south of the border between the US and Canada
+	- [[B.]] A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline
+	- [[C.]] A line roughly parallel to and north of the border between the US and Mexico
+	- [[D.]] A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline
+- [[E1F05]] (D) [97.303]
+Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A? #card
+	- [[A.]] 440 MHz - 450 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 53 MHz - 54 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 222 MHz - 223 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 420 MHz - 430 MHz
+- [[E1F06]] (A) [1.931]
+Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station? #card
+	- [[A.]] To provide for experimental amateur communications
+	- [[B.]] To allow use of a special event call sign
+	- [[C.]] To allow a VE group with less than three VEs to administer examinations in a remote, sparsely populated area
+	- [[D.]] To allow a licensee who has passed an upgrade exam to operate with upgraded privileges while waiting for posting on the FCC database
+- [[E1F07]] (D) [97.113]
+When may an amateur station send a message to a business? #card
+	- [[A.]] When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $25
+	- [[B.]] When the pecuniary interest of the amateur or his or her employer is less than $50
+	- [[C.]] At no time
+	- [[D.]] When neither the amateur nor their employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications
+- [[E1F08]] (A) [97.113(c)]
+Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited? #card
+	- [[A.]] Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules
+	- [[B.]] Communications that have political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine
+	- [[C.]] Communications that have religious content
+	- [[D.]] Communications in a language other than English
+- [[E1F09]] (C) [FCC Part 97.113(a)(4)]
+Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network? #card
+	- [[A.]] Third party traffic
+	- [[B.]] Email
+	- [[C.]] Messages encoded to obscure their meaning
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E1F10]] (B) [97.201]
+Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? #card
+	- [[A.]] Any licensed amateur operator
+	- [[B.]] Only Technician, General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
+	- [[C.]] Only General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class operators
+	- [[D.]] Only Amateur Extra class operators
+- [[E1F11]] (D) [97.317]
+Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification? #card
+	- [[A.]] It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power
+	- [[B.]] It must have received an Underwriters Laboratory certification for electrical safety as well as having met IEEE standard 14.101(B)
+	- [[C.]] It must exhibit a gain of less than 23 dB when driven by 10 watts or less
+	- [[D.]] It must satisfy the FCC’s spurious emission standards when operated at the lesser of 1500 watts or its full output power

pages/E2A.md

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+E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations
+
+- [[E2A01]] (C)
+What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? #card
+	- [[A.]] From west to east
+	- [[B.]] From east to west
+	- [[C.]] From south to north
+	- [[D.]] From north to south
+- [[E2A02]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder? #card
+	- [[A.]] Doppler shift is reduced because the uplink and downlink shifts are in opposite directions
+	- [[B.]] Signal position in the band is reversed
+	- [[C.]] Upper sideband on the uplink becomes lower sideband on the downlink, and vice versa
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2A03]] (D)
+How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder? #card
+	- [[A.]] The signal is detected and remodulated on the reverse sideband
+	- [[B.]] The signal is passed through a nonlinear filter
+	- [[C.]] The signal is reduced to I and Q components, and the Q component is filtered out
+	- [[D.]] The signal is mixed with a local oscillator signal and the difference product is transmitted
+- [[E2A04]] (B)
+What is meant by the “mode” of an amateur radio satellite? #card
+	- [[A.]] Whether the satellite is in a low earth or geostationary orbit
+	- [[B.]] The satellite’s uplink and downlink frequency bands
+	- [[C.]] The satellite’s orientation with respect to the Earth
+	- [[D.]] Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit
+- [[E2A05]] (D)
+What do the letters in a satellite’s mode designator specify? #card
+	- [[A.]] Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions
+	- [[B.]] The location of the ground control station
+	- [[C.]] The polarization of uplink and downlink signals
+	- [[D.]] The uplink and downlink frequency ranges
+- [[E2A06]] (A)
+What are Keplerian elements? #card
+	- [[A.]] Parameters that define the orbit of a satellite
+	- [[B.]] Phase reversing elements in a Yagi antenna
+	- [[C.]] High-emission heater filaments used in magnetron tubes
+	- [[D.]] Encrypting codes used for spread spectrum modulation
+- [[E2A07]] (D)
+Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? #card
+	- [[A.]] FM and CW
+	- [[B.]] SSB and SSTV
+	- [[C.]] PSK and packet
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2A08]] (B)
+Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder? #card
+	- [[A.]] To prevent creating errors in the satellite telemetry
+	- [[B.]] To avoid reducing the downlink power to all other users
+	- [[C.]] To prevent the satellite from emitting out-of-band signals
+	- [[D.]] To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs
+- [[E2A09]] (A)
+What do the terms “L band” and “S band” specify? #card
+	- [[A.]] The 23- and 13-centimeter bands
+	- [[B.]] The 2-meter and 70-centimeter bands
+	- [[C.]] FM and digital store-and-forward systems
+	- [[D.]] Which sideband to use
+- [[E2A10]] (B)
+What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? #card
+	- [[A.]] HEO
+	- [[B.]] Geostationary
+	- [[C.]] Geomagnetic
+	- [[D.]] LEO
+- [[E2A11]] (B)
+What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? #card
+	- [[A.]] A linearly polarized antenna
+	- [[B.]] A circularly polarized antenna
+	- [[C.]] An isotropic antenna
+	- [[D.]] A log-periodic dipole array
+- [[E2A12]] (C)
+What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite? #card
+	- [[A.]] To upload operational software for the transponder
+	- [[B.]] To delay download of telemetry between satellites
+	- [[C.]] To hold digital messages in the satellite for later download
+	- [[D.]] To relay messages between satellites
+- [[E2A13]] Question Deleted (section not renumbered)
+~~
+
+
+E2B Television practices: fast-scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
+

pages/E2B.md

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+E2B Television practices: fast-scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
+
+- [[E2B01]] (A)
+In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean? #card
+	- [[A.]] 25% of the data sent is forward error correction data
+	- [[B.]] Data compression reduces data rate by 3/4
+	- [[C.]] 1/4 of the time interval is used as a guard interval
+	- [[D.]] Three, four-bit words are used to transmit each pixel
+- [[E2B02]] (C)
+How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame? #card
+	- [[A.]] 30
+	- [[B.]] 60
+	- [[C.]] 525
+	- [[D.]] 1080
+- [[E2B03]] (D)
+How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? #card
+	- [[A.]] By scanning two fields simultaneously
+	- [[B.]] By scanning each field from bottom-to-top
+	- [[C.]] By scanning lines from left-to-right in one field and right-to-left in the next
+	- [[D.]] By scanning odd-numbered lines in one field and even-numbered lines in the next
+- [[E2B04]] (A)
+How is color information sent in analog SSTV? #card
+	- [[A.]] Color lines are sent sequentially
+	- [[B.]] Color information is sent on a 2.8 kHz subcarrier
+	- [[C.]] Color is sent in a color burst at the end of each line
+	- [[D.]] Color is amplitude modulated on the frequency modulated intensity signal
+- [[E2B05]] (C)
+Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions? #card
+	- [[A.]] The vestigial sideband carries the audio information
+	- [[B.]] The vestigial sideband contains chroma information
+	- [[C.]] Vestigial sideband reduces the bandwidth while increasing the fidelity of low frequency video components
+	- [[D.]] Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture
+- [[E2B06]] (A)
+What is vestigial sideband modulation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other are transmitted
+	- [[B.]] A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted
+	- [[C.]] Narrow-band FM modulation achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier
+	- [[D.]] Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation
+- [[E2B07]] (B)
+Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] FM and FSK
+	- [[B.]] QAM and QPSK
+	- [[C.]] AM and OOK
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2B08]] (A)
+What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70-centimeter band? #card
+	- [[A.]] Transmitting on channels shared with cable TV
+	- [[B.]] Using converted satellite TV dishes
+	- [[C.]] Transmitting on the abandoned TV channel 2
+	- [[D.]] Using USB and demodulating the signal with a computer sound card
+- [[E2B09]] (D)
+What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol? #card
+	- [[A.]] CDMA
+	- [[B.]] AREDN
+	- [[C.]] AM
+	- [[D.]] SSB
+- [[E2B10]] (A)
+What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? #card
+	- [[A.]] Tone frequency
+	- [[B.]] Tone amplitude
+	- [[C.]] Sync amplitude
+	- [[D.]] Sync frequency
+- [[E2B11]] (B)
+What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission? #card
+	- [[A.]] To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images
+	- [[B.]] To identify the SSTV mode being used
+	- [[C.]] To provide vertical synchronization
+	- [[D.]] To identify the call sign of the station transmitting
+- [[E2B12]] (A)
+What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line? #card
+	- [[A.]] Specific tone frequencies
+	- [[B.]] Elapsed time
+	- [[C.]] Specific tone amplitudes
+	- [[D.]] A two-tone signal

pages/E2C.md

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+E2C Contest and DX operating; remote operation techniques; log data format; contact confirmation; RF network systems
+
+- [[E2C01]] (D)
+What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US? #card
+	- [[A.]] / followed by the USPS two-letter abbreviation for the state in which the remote station is located
+	- [[B.]] /R# where # is the district of the remote station
+	- [[C.]] / followed by the ARRL Section of the remote station
+	- [[D.]] No additional indicator is required
+- [[E2C02]] (C)
+Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data? #card
+	- [[A.]] NEC
+	- [[B.]] ARLD
+	- [[C.]] ADIF
+	- [[D.]] OCF
+- [[E2C03]] (A)
+From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? #card
+	- [[A.]] 30 meters
+	- [[B.]] 6 meters
+	- [[C.]] 70 centimeters
+	- [[D.]] 33 centimeters
+- [[E2C04]] (B)
+Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks? #card
+	- [[A.]] HF frequencies where digital communications are permitted
+	- [[B.]] Frequencies shared with various unlicensed wireless data services
+	- [[C.]] Cable TV channels 41-43
+	- [[D.]] The 60-meter band channel centered on 5373 kHz
+- [[E2C05]] (B)
+What is the function of a DX QSL Manager? #card
+	- [[A.]] Allocate frequencies for DXpeditions
+	- [[B.]] Handle the receiving and sending of confirmations for a DX station
+	- [[C.]] Run a net to allow many stations to contact a rare DX station
+	- [[D.]] Communicate to a DXpedition about propagation, band openings, pileup conditions, etc.
+- [[E2C06]] (C)
+During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity? #card
+	- [[A.]] At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests
+	- [[B.]] In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency
+	- [[C.]] In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency
+	- [[D.]] In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency
+- [[E2C07]] (A)
+What is the Cabrillo format? #card
+	- [[A.]] A standard for submission of electronic contest logs
+	- [[B.]] A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO
+	- [[C.]] The most common set of contest rules
+	- [[D.]] A digital protocol specifically designed for rapid contest exchanges
+- [[E2C08]] (D)
+Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)? #card
+	- [[A.]] Special event contacts between stations in the US
+	- [[B.]] Contacts between a US station and a non-US station
+	- [[C.]] Contacts for Worked All States credit
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2C09]] (C)
+What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network? #card
+	- [[A.]] A 2-meter VHF transceiver with a 1,200-baud modem
+	- [[B.]] A computer running EchoLink to provide interface from the radio to the internet
+	- [[C.]] A wireless router running custom firmware
+	- [[D.]] A 440 MHz transceiver with a 9,600-baud modem
+- [[E2C10]] (D)
+Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations
+	- [[B.]] To separate the calling stations from the DX station
+	- [[C.]] To improve operating efficiency by reducing interference
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2C11]] (A)
+How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup? #card
+	- [[A.]] Send your full call sign once or twice
+	- [[B.]] Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact
+	- [[C.]] Send your full call sign and grid square
+	- [[D.]] Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words “this is,” then your call sign three times
+- [[E2C12]] (C)
+What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Jitter
+	- [[B.]] Hang time
+	- [[C.]] Latency
+	- [[D.]] Anti-VOX

pages/E2D.md

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+E2D Operating methods: digital modes and procedures for VHF and UHF; APRS; EME procedures; meteor scatter procedures
+
+- [[E2D01]] (B)
+Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] WSPR
+	- [[B.]] MSK144
+	- [[C.]] Hellschreiber
+	- [[D.]] APRS
+- [[E2D02]] (D)
+What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest? #card
+	- [[A.]] RST report
+	- [[B.]] State abbreviation
+	- [[C.]] Serial number
+	- [[D.]] Grid square
+- [[E2D03]] (D)
+Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] MSK144
+	- [[B.]] PACTOR III
+	- [[C.]] WSPR
+	- [[D.]] Q65
+- [[E2D04]] (C)
+What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters? #card
+	- [[A.]] FT8
+	- [[B.]] Bandwidth compressed LORAN
+	- [[C.]] APRS
+	- [[D.]]  PACTOR III
+- [[E2D05]] (B)
+What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode? #card
+	- [[A.]] Uses only a 65 Hz bandwidth
+	- [[B.]] Decodes signals with a very low signal-to-noise ratio
+	- [[C.]] Symbol rate is 65 baud
+	- [[D.]] Permits fast-scan TV transmissions over narrow bandwidth
+- [[E2D06]] (A)
+Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts? #card
+	- [[A.]] Time-synchronous transmissions alternating between stations
+	- [[B.]] Storing and forwarding digital messages
+	- [[C.]] Judging optimum transmission times by monitoring beacons reflected from the moon
+	- [[D.]] High-speed CW identification to avoid fading
+- [[E2D07]] (C)
+What digital protocol is used by APRS? #card
+	- [[A.]] PACTOR
+	- [[B.]] QAM
+	- [[C.]] AX.25
+	- [[D.]] AMTOR
+- [[E2D08]] (C)
+What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data? #card
+	- [[A.]] Acknowledgement
+	- [[B.]] Burst
+	- [[C.]] Unnumbered Information
+	- [[D.]] Connect
+- [[E2D09]] (A)
+What type of modulation is used by JT65? #card
+	- [[A.]] Multitone AFSK
+	- [[B.]] PSK
+	- [[C.]] RTTY
+	- [[D.]] QAM
+- [[E2D10]] (C)
+What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate? #card
+	- [[A.]] Three stations are allowed on frequency, one transmitting at a time
+	- [[B.]] Three subcarriers are permitted, subcarrier one is being used
+	- [[C.]] Three digipeater hops are requested with one remaining
+	- [[D.]] Three internet gateway stations may receive one transmission
+- [[E2D11]] (D)
+How do APRS stations relay data? #card
+	- [[A.]] By packet ACK/NAK relay
+	- [[B.]] By C4FM repeaters
+	- [[C.]] By DMR repeaters 
+	- [[D.]] By packet digipeaters

pages/E2E.md

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+E2E Operating methods: digital modes and procedures for HF
+
+- [[E2E01]] (B)
+Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
+	- [[B.]] FSK
+	- [[C.]] Pulse modulation
+	- [[D.]] Spread spectrum
+- [[E2E02]] (B)
+Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing? #card
+	- [[A.]] Alignment of frequency shifts
+	- [[B.]] Synchronization of computer clocks
+	- [[C.]] Sync-field transmission
+	- [[D.]] Sync-pulse timing
+- [[E2E03]] (B)
+To what does the "4" in FT4 refer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Multiples of 4 bits of user information
+	- [[B.]] Four-tone continuous-phase frequency shift keying
+	- [[C.]] Four transmit/receive cycles per minute
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2E04]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode? #card
+	- [[A.]] Four-tone Gaussian frequency shift keying
+	- [[B.]] Variable transmit/receive periods
+	- [[C.]] Seven different tone spacings
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2E05]] (A)
+Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation? #card
+	- [[A.]] WSPR
+	- [[B.]] RTTY
+	- [[C.]] PSK31
+	- [[D.]] MFSK16
+- [[E2E06]] (C)
+What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle? #card
+	- [[A.]] It varies with the amount of data
+	- [[B.]] 8 seconds
+	- [[C.]] 15 seconds
+	- [[D.]] 30 seconds
+- [[E2E07]] (C)
+How does Q65 differ from JT65? #card
+	- [[A.]] Keyboard-to keyboard operation is supported
+	- [[B.]] Quadrature modulation is used
+	- [[C.]] Multiple receive cycles are averaged
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2E08]] (B)
+Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? #card
+	- [[A.]] PSK31
+	- [[B.]] PACTOR
+	- [[C.]] RTTY
+	- [[D.]] AMTOR
+- [[E2E09]] (D)
+Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding? #card
+	- [[A.]] RTTY
+	- [[B.]] PACTOR
+	- [[C.]] MT63
+	- [[D.]] PSK31
+- [[E2E10]] (C)
+Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth? #card
+	- [[A.]] MFSK16
+	- [[B.]] 170 Hz shift, 45-baud RTTY
+	- [[C.]] FT8
+	- [[D.]] PACTOR IV
+- [[E2E11]] (A)
+What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK? #card
+	- [[A.]] Direct FSK modulates the transmitter VFO
+	- [[B.]] Direct FSK occupies less bandwidth
+	- [[C.]] Direct FSK can transmit higher baud rates
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E2E12]] (A)
+How do ALE stations establish contact? #card
+	- [[A.]] ALE constantly scans a list of frequencies, activating the radio when the designated call sign is received
+	- [[B.]] ALE radios monitor an internet site for the frequency they are being paged on
+	- [[C.]] ALE radios send a constant tone code to establish a frequency for future use
+	- [[D.]] ALE radios activate when they hear their signal echoed by back scatter
+- [[E2E13]] (D)
+Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions? #card
+	- [[A.]] MFSK16
+	- [[B.]] 170 Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY
+	- [[C.]] FT8
+	- [[D.]] PACTOR IV

pages/E3A.md

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+E3A Electromagnetic Waves and Specialized Propagation: Earth-Moon-Earth (EME) communications; meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; auroral propagation; daily variation of ionospheric propagation; circular polarization
+
+- [[E3A01]] (D)
+What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME? #card
+	- [[A.]] 2,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
+	- [[B.]] 2,000 miles, if the moon is at apogee
+	- [[C.]] 5,000 miles, if the moon is at perigee
+	- [[D.]] 12,000 miles, if the moon is “visible” by both stations
+- [[E3A02]] (B)
+What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal
+	- [[B.]] A fluttery, irregular fading
+	- [[C.]] A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises
+	- [[D.]] The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal
+- [[E3A03]] (A)
+When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? #card
+	- [[A.]] When the Moon is at perigee
+	- [[B.]] When the Moon is full
+	- [[C.]] When the Moon is at apogee
+	- [[D.]] When the MUF is above 30 MHz
+- [[E3A04]] (D)
+In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel? #card
+	- [[A.]] It depends on the phase angle of the magnetic field
+	- [[B.]] It travels parallel to the electric and magnetic fields
+	- [[C.]] It depends on the phase angle of the electric field
+	- [[D.]] It travels at a right angle to the electric and magnetic fields
+- [[E3A05]] (C)
+How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented? #card
+	- [[A.]] They are parallel
+	- [[B.]] They are tangential
+	- [[C.]] They are at right angles
+	- [[D.]] They are 90 degrees out of phase
+- [[E3A06]] (B)
+What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness? #card
+	- [[A.]] Switch to a higher frequency HF band
+	- [[B.]] Switch to a lower frequency HF band
+	- [[C.]] Change to an antenna with a higher takeoff angle
+	- [[D.]] Change to an antenna with greater beam width
+- [[E3A07]] (C)
+Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature? #card
+	- [[A.]] Mountain ranges
+	- [[B.]] Stratocumulus clouds
+	- [[C.]] Large bodies of water
+	- [[D.]] Nimbus clouds
+- [[E3A08]] (A)
+When a meteor strikes the Earth’s atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere? #card
+	- [[A.]] The E region
+	- [[B.]] The F1 region
+	- [[C.]] The F2 region
+	- [[D.]] The D region
+- [[E3A09]] (C)
+Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] 1.8 MHz - 1.9 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 10 MHz - 14 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 28 MHz - 148 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 220 MHz - 450 MHz
+- [[E3A10]] (D)
+What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium? #card
+	- [[A.]] Resistance and reactance
+	- [[B.]] Evanescence
+	- [[C.]] Birefringence
+	- [[D.]] The index of refraction
+- [[E3A11]] (B)
+What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] 10 miles to 50 miles
+	- [[B.]] 100 miles to 300 miles
+	- [[C.]] 1,200 miles
+	- [[D.]] 2,500 miles
+- [[E3A12]] (C)
+What is most likely to result in auroral propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Meteor showers
+	- [[B.]] Quiet geomagnetic conditions
+	- [[C.]] Severe geomagnetic storms
+	- [[D.]] Extreme low-pressure areas in polar regions
+- [[E3A13]] (A)
+Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] CW
+	- [[B.]] SSB
+	- [[C.]] FM
+	- [[D.]] RTTY
+- [[E3A14]] (B)
+What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves? #card
+	- [[A.]] Waves with an electric field bent into a circular shape
+	- [[B.]] Waves with rotating electric and magnetic fields
+	- [[C.]] Waves that circle Earth
+	- [[D.]] Waves produced by a loop antenna

pages/E3B.md

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+E3B Transequatorial propagation; long-path propagation; ordinary and extraordinary waves; chordal hop; sporadic-E mechanisms; ground-wave propagation
+
+- [[E3B01]] (A)
+Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur? #card
+	- [[A.]] Between points separated by 2,000 miles to 3,000 miles over a path perpendicular to the geomagnetic equator
+	- [[B.]] Between points located 1,500 miles to 2,000 miles apart on the geomagnetic equator
+	- [[C.]] Between points located at each other’s antipode
+	- [[D.]] Through the region where the terminator crosses the geographic equator
+- [[E3B02]] (C)
+What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] 1,000 miles
+	- [[B.]] 2,500 miles
+	- [[C.]] 5,000 miles
+	- [[D.]] 7,500 miles
+- [[E3B03]] (C)
+At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur? #card
+	- [[A.]] Morning
+	- [[B.]] Noon
+	- [[C.]] Afternoon or early evening
+	- [[D.]] Late at night
+- [[E3B04]] (B)
+What are “extraordinary” and “ordinary” waves? #card
+	- [[A.]] Extraordinary waves exhibit rare long-skip propagation, compared to ordinary waves, which travel shorter distances
+	- [[B.]] Independently propagating, elliptically polarized waves created in the ionosphere
+	- [[C.]] Long-path and short-path waves
+	- [[D.]] Refracted rays and reflected waves
+- [[E3B05]] (D)
+Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters? #card
+	- [[A.]] A path entirely in sunlight
+	- [[B.]] Paths at high latitudes
+	- [[C.]] A direct north-south path
+	- [[D.]] A path entirely in darkness
+- [[E3B06]] (B)
+On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent? #card
+	- [[A.]] 160 meters and 80 meters
+	- [[B.]] 40 meters and 20 meters
+	- [[C.]] 10 meters and 6 meters
+	- [[D.]] 6 meters and 2 meters
+- [[E3B07]] (C)
+What effect does lowering a signal’s transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Faraday rotation becomes stronger
+	- [[B.]] The MUF decreases
+	- [[C.]] The distance covered by each hop increases
+	- [[D.]] The critical frequency increases
+- [[E3B08]] (C)
+How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased? #card
+	- [[A.]] It stays the same
+	- [[B.]] It increases
+	- [[C.]] It decreases
+	- [[D.]] It peaks at roughly 8 MHz
+- [[E3B09]] (A)
+At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur? #card
+	- [[A.]] Around the solstices, especially the summer solstice
+	- [[B.]] Around the solstices, especially the winter solstice
+	- [[C.]] Around the equinoxes, especially the spring equinox
+	- [[D.]] Around the equinoxes, especially the fall equinox
+- [[E3B10]] (A)
+What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] The signal experiences less loss compared to multi-hop propagation, which uses Earth as a reflector
+	- [[B.]] The MUF for chordal-hop propagation is much lower than for normal skip propagation
+	- [[C.]] Atmospheric noise is reduced in the direction of chordal-hop propagation
+	- [[D.]] Signals travel faster along ionospheric chords
+- [[E3B11]] (D)
+At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur? #card
+	- [[A.]] Between midnight and sunrise
+	- [[B.]] Between sunset and midnight
+	- [[C.]] Between sunset and sunrise
+	- [[D.]] Between sunrise and sunset
+- [[E3B12]] (B)
+What is chordal-hop propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Propagation away from the great circle bearing between stations
+	- [[B.]] Successive ionospheric refractions without an intermediate reflection from the ground
+	- [[C.]] Propagation across the geomagnetic equator
+	- [[D.]] Signals reflected back toward the transmitting station
+- [[E3B13]] (A)
+What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Vertical
+	- [[B.]] Horizontal
+	- [[C.]] Circular
+	- [[D.]] Elliptical

pages/E3C.md

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+E3C Propagation prediction and reporting: radio horizon; effects of space-weather phenomena
+
+- [[E3C01]] (D)
+What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts? #card
+	- [[A.]] Coronal mass ejections
+	- [[B.]] Sunspots on the solar equator
+	- [[C.]] North-oriented interplanetary magnetic field
+	- [[D.]] Solar flares
+- [[E3C02]] (A)
+What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index? #card
+	- [[A.]] Increasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
+	- [[B.]] Decreasing disturbance of the geomagnetic field
+	- [[C.]] Higher levels of solar UV radiation
+	- [[D.]] An increase in the critical frequency
+- [[E3C03]] (B)
+Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated? #card
+	- [[A.]] Transequatorial
+	- [[B.]] Through the auroral oval
+	- [[C.]] Sporadic-E
+	- [[D.]] NVIS
+- [[E3C04]] (C)
+What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] Geomagnetic field stability
+	- [[B.]] Critical frequency for vertical transmissions
+	- [[C.]] North-south strength of the interplanetary magnetic field
+	- [[D.]] Duration of long-delayed echoes
+- [[E3C05]] (A)
+What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions? #card
+	- [[A.]] Southward
+	- [[B.]] Northward
+	- [[C.]] Eastward
+	- [[D.]] Westward
+- [[E3C06]] (A)
+How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is approximately 15 percent farther
+	- [[B.]] It is approximately 20 percent nearer
+	- [[C.]] It is approximately 50 percent farther
+	- [[D.]] They are approximately the same
+- [[E3C07]] (D)
+Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity? #card
+	- [[A.]] Class A
+	- [[B.]] Class Z
+	- [[C.]] Class M
+	- [[D.]] Class X
+- [[E3C08]] (D)
+Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm? #card
+	- [[A.]] B9
+	- [[B.]] X5
+	- [[C.]] M9
+	- [[D.]] G5
+- [[E3C09]] (D)
+What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks? #card
+	- [[A.]] Solar flux
+	- [[B.]] Electric field intensity
+	- [[C.]] Magnetic declination
+	- [[D.]] Digital-mode and CW signals
+- [[E3C10]] (B)
+What does the 304A solar parameter measure? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of X-ray flux to radio flux, correlated to sunspot number
+	- [[B.]] UV emissions at 304 angstroms, correlated to the solar flux index
+	- [[C.]] The solar wind velocity at an angle of 304 degrees from the solar equator, correlated to geomagnetic storms
+	- [[D.]] The solar emission at 304 GHz, correlated to X-ray flare levels
+- [[E3C11]] (C)
+What does VOACAP software model? #card
+	- [[A.]] AC voltage and impedance
+	- [[B.]] VHF radio propagation
+	- [[C.]] HF propagation
+	- [[D.]] AC current and impedance
+- [[E3C12]] (B)
+Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum? #card
+	- [[A.]] A temperature inversion has occurred
+	- [[B.]] A coronal mass ejection impact or a solar flare has occurred
+	- [[C.]] Transequatorial propagation on 6 meters is likely
+	- [[D.]] Long-path propagation on the higher HF bands is likely

pages/E4A.md

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+E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum analyzers; antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; RF measurements
+
+- [[E4A01]] (A)
+Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope? #card
+	- [[A.]] Sampling rate of the analog-to-digital converter
+	- [[B.]] Analog-to-digital converter reference frequency
+	- [[C.]] Q of the circuit
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4A02]] (B)
+Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes? #card
+	- [[A.]] Signal amplitude and time
+	- [[B.]] Signal amplitude and frequency
+	- [[C.]] SWR and frequency
+	- [[D.]] SWR and time
+- [[E4A03]] (B)
+Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Differential resolver
+	- [[B.]] Spectrum analyzer
+	- [[C.]] Logic analyzer
+	- [[D.]] Network analyzer
+- [[E4A04]] (A)
+How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed? #card
+	- [[A.]] A square wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave are as nearly flat as possible
+	- [[B.]] A high frequency sine wave is displayed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude
+	- [[C.]] A frequency standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate
+	- [[D.]] A DC voltage standard is displayed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate
+- [[E4A05]] (D)
+What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Amplify low-level signals for more accurate counting
+	- [[B.]] Multiply a higher frequency signal so a low-frequency counter can display the operating frequency
+	- [[C.]] Prevent oscillation in a low-frequency counter circuit
+	- [[D.]] Reduce the signal frequency to within the counter's operating range
+- [[E4A06]] (A)
+What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform? #card
+	- [[A.]] A false, jittery low-frequency version of the waveform is displayed
+	- [[B.]] The waveform DC offset will be inaccurate
+	- [[C.]] Calibration of the vertical scale is no longer valid
+	- [[D.]] Excessive blanking occurs, which prevents display of the waveform
+- [[E4A07]] (B)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge? #card
+	- [[A.]] Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance
+	- [[B.]] Antenna analyzers compute SWR and impedance automatically
+	- [[C.]] Antenna analyzers display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is used to measure SWR? #card
+	- [[A.]] Directional wattmeter 
+	- [[B.]] Vector network analyzer 
+	- [[C.]] Antenna analyzer 
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4A09]] (A)
+Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? #card
+	- [[A.]] Minimize the length of the probe's ground connection
+	- [[B.]] Never use a high-impedance probe to measure a low-impedance circuit
+	- [[C.]] Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4A10]] (D)
+Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply’s output ripple? #card
+	- [[A.]] Single-shot
+	- [[B.]] Edge
+	- [[C.]] Level
+	- [[D.]] Line
+- [[E4A11]] (D)
+Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Velocity factor
+	- [[B.]] Cable length
+	- [[C.]] Resonant frequency of a tuned circuit
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct

pages/E4B.md

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+E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration; S parameters; vector network analyzers; RF signals
+
+- [[E4B01]] (B)
+Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Input attenuator accuracy
+	- [[B.]] Time base accuracy
+	- [[C.]] Decade divider accuracy
+	- [[D.]] Temperature coefficient of the logic
+- [[E4B02]] (A)
+What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? #card
+	- [[A.]] The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating is the input impedance of the voltmeter
+	- [[B.]] The reading in volts multiplied by the ohms per volt rating will determine the power drawn by the device under test
+	- [[C.]] The reading in ohms divided by the ohms per volt rating will determine the voltage applied to the circuit
+	- [[D.]] The full scale reading in amps divided by ohms per volt rating will determine the size of shunt needed
+- [[E4B03]] (C)
+Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain? #card
+	- [[A.]] S11
+	- [[B.]] S12
+	- [[C.]] S21
+	- [[D.]] S22
+- [[E4B04]] (A)
+Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)? #card
+	- [[A.]] S11
+	- [[B.]] S12
+	- [[C.]] S21
+	- [[D.]] S22
+- [[E4B05]] (B)
+What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 ohms, 75 ohms, and 90 ohms
+	- [[B.]] Short circuit, open circuit, and 50 ohms
+	- [[C.]] Short circuit, open circuit, and resonant circuit
+	- [[D.]] 50 ohms through 1/8 wavelength, 1/4 wavelength, and 1/2 wavelength of coaxial cable
+- [[E4B06]] (D)
+How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power? #card
+	- [[A.]] 100 watts
+	- [[B.]] 125 watts
+	- [[C.]] 112.5 watts
+	- [[D.]] 75 watts
+- [[E4B07]] (A)
+What do the subscripts of S parameters represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] The port or ports at which measurements are made
+	- [[B.]] The relative time between measurements
+	- [[C.]] Relative quality of the data
+	- [[D.]] Frequency order of the measurements
+- [[E4B08]] (C)
+Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of inductive reactance to capacitive reactance
+	- [[B.]] The frequency shift
+	- [[C.]] The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response
+	- [[D.]] The resonant frequency of the circuit
+- [[E4B09]] (B)
+Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Phase noise
+	- [[B.]] Filter frequency response
+	- [[C.]] Pulse rise time
+	- [[D.]] Forward power
+- [[E4B10]] (B)
+Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
+	- [[B.]] Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having non-harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
+	- [[C.]] Modulate the transmitter using two AF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
+	- [[D.]] Modulate the transmitter using two RF signals having harmonically related frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer
+- [[E4B11]] (D)
+Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Input impedance
+	- [[B.]] Output impedance
+	- [[C.]] Reflection coefficient
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct

pages/E4C.md

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+E4C Receiver performance: phase noise, noise floor, image rejection, minimum detectable signal (MDS), increasing signal-to-noise ratio and dynamic range, noise figure, reciprocal mixing; selectivity; SDR non-linearity; use of attenuators at low frequencies
+
+- [[E4C01]] (D)
+What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver’s master clock oscillator? #card
+	- [[A.]] It limits the receiver’s ability to receive strong signals
+	- [[B.]] It can affect the receiver’s frequency calibration
+	- [[C.]] It decreases the receiver’s third-order intercept point
+	- [[D.]] It can combine with strong signals on nearby frequencies to generate interference
+- [[E4C02]] (A)
+Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] A front-end filter or preselector
+	- [[B.]] A narrow IF filter
+	- [[C.]] A notch filter
+	- [[D.]] A properly adjusted product detector
+- [[E4C03]] (C)
+What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Desensitization
+	- [[B.]] Cross-modulation interference
+	- [[C.]] Capture effect
+	- [[D.]] Frequency discrimination
+- [[E4C04]] (D)
+What is the noise figure of a receiver? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of atmospheric noise to phase noise
+	- [[B.]] The ratio of the noise bandwidth in hertz to the theoretical bandwidth of a resistive network
+	- [[C.]] The ratio in dB of the noise generated in the receiver to atmospheric noise
+	- [[D.]] The ratio in dB of the noise generated by the receiver to the theoretical minimum noise
+- [[E4C05]] (B)
+What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] The receiver noise is 6 dB above the theoretical minimum
+	- [[B.]] The theoretical noise in a 1 Hz bandwidth at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature
+	- [[C.]] The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver
+	- [[D.]] The receiver noise is 3 dB above theoretical minimum
+- [[E4C06]] (D)
+How much does increasing a receiver’s bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver’s noise floor? #card
+	- [[A.]] 3 dB
+	- [[B.]] 5 dB
+	- [[C.]] 10 dB
+	- [[D.]] 13 dB
+- [[E4C07]] (B)
+What does the MDS of a receiver represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] The meter display sensitivity
+	- [[B.]] The minimum discernible signal
+	- [[C.]] The modulation distortion specification
+	- [[D.]] The maximum detectable spectrum
+- [[E4C08]] (D)
+An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level? #card
+	- [[A.]] One-half of the maximum sample rate
+	- [[B.]] One-half of the maximum sampling buffer size
+	- [[C.]] The maximum count value of the analog-to-digital converter
+	- [[D.]] The reference voltage of the analog-to-digital converter
+- [[E4C09]] (C)
+Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver? #card
+	- [[A.]] Fewer components in the receiver
+	- [[B.]] Reduced drift
+	- [[C.]] Easier for front-end circuitry to eliminate image responses
+	- [[D.]] Improved receiver noise figure
+- [[E4C10]] (C)
+What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select? #card
+	- [[A.]] The noise figure of the RF amplifier can be adjusted to match the modulation type, thus increasing receiver sensitivity 
+	- [[B.]] Receiver power consumption can be reduced when wider bandwidth is not required
+	- [[C.]] Receive bandwidth can be set to match the modulation bandwidth, maximizing signal-to-noise ratio and minimizing interference
+	- [[D.]] Multiple frequencies can be received simultaneously if desired
+- [[E4C11]] (D)
+Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio? #card
+	- [[A.]] The attenuator has a low-pass filter to increase the strength of lower frequency signals
+	- [[B.]] The attenuator has a noise filter to suppress interference
+	- [[C.]] Signals are attenuated separately from the noise
+	- [[D.]] Atmospheric noise is generally greater than internally generated noise even after attenuation
+- [[E4C12]] (C)
+How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance? #card
+	- [[A.]] It improves sensitivity by reducing front-end noise
+	- [[B.]] It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing
+	- [[C.]] It improves blocking dynamic range by attenuating strong signals near the receive frequency
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4C13]] (D)
+What is reciprocal mixing? #card
+	- [[A.]] Two out-of-band signals mixing to generate an in-band spurious signal
+	- [[B.]] In-phase signals cancelling in a mixer resulting in loss of receiver sensitivity
+	- [[C.]] Two digital signals combining from alternate time slots
+	- [[D.]] Local oscillator phase noise mixing with adjacent strong signals to create interference to desired signals
+- [[E4C14]] (C)
+What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control? #card
+	- [[A.]] To permit listening on a different frequency from the transmitting frequency
+	- [[B.]] To change frequency rapidly
+	- [[C.]] To reduce interference from stations transmitting on adjacent frequencies
+	- [[D.]] To tune in stations slightly off frequency without changing the transmit frequency

pages/E4D.md

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+E4D Receiver performance characteristics: dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; third-order intercept; desensitization; preselector; sensitivity; link margin
+
+- [[E4D01]] (A)
+What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? #card
+	- [[A.]] The difference in dB between the noise floor and the level of an incoming signal that will cause 1 dB of gain compression
+	- [[B.]] The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals that will cause one signal to block the other
+	- [[C.]] The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third-order intercept point
+	- [[D.]] The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third-order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor
+- [[E4D02]] (A)
+Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver? #card
+	- [[A.]] Spurious signals caused by cross modulation and desensitization from strong adjacent signals
+	- [[B.]] Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband
+	- [[C.]] Poor weak signal reception caused by insufficient local oscillator injection
+	- [[D.]] Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals
+- [[E4D03]] (B)
+What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity? #card
+	- [[A.]] The output signals cause feedback in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
+	- [[B.]] The output signals mix in the final amplifier of one or both transmitters
+	- [[C.]] The input frequencies are harmonically related
+	- [[D.]] The output frequencies are harmonically related
+- [[E4D04]] (B)
+Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby transmitter? #card
+	- [[A.]] A band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver
+	- [[B.]] A properly terminated circulator at the output of the repeater’s transmitter
+	- [[C.]] Utilizing a Class C final amplifier
+	- [[D.]] Utilizing a Class D final amplifier
+- [[E4D05]] (A)
+What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 146.30 MHz and 146.90 MHz
+- [[E4D06]] (C)
+What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reciprocal mixing
+	- [[B.]] Quieting
+	- [[C.]] Desensitization
+	- [[D.]] Cross modulation interference
+- [[E4D07]] (A)
+Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization? #card
+	- [[A.]] Insert attenuation before the first RF stage
+	- [[B.]] Raise the receiver’s IF frequency
+	- [[C.]] Increase the receiver’s front-end gain
+	- [[D.]] Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC
+- [[E4D08]] (C)
+What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? #card
+	- [[A.]] Negative feedback
+	- [[B.]] Lack of neutralization
+	- [[C.]] Nonlinear circuits or devices
+	- [[D.]] Positive feedback
+- [[E4D09]] (C)
+What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? #card
+	- [[A.]] To store frequencies that are often used
+	- [[B.]] To provide broadband attenuation before the first RF stage to prevent intermodulation
+	- [[C.]] To increase the rejection of signals outside the band being received
+	- [[D.]] To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device
+- [[E4D10]] (C)
+What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products
+	- [[B.]] The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products
+	- [[C.]] A pair of 40 dBm input signals will theoretically generate a third-order intermodulation product that has the same output amplitude as either of the input signals
+	- [[D.]] A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product that is 40 dB stronger than the input signal
+- [[E4D11]] (A)
+Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products? #card
+	- [[A.]] Odd-order products of two signals in the band being received are also likely to be within the band
+	- [[B.]] Odd-order products are more likely to overload the IF filters
+	- [[C.]] Odd-order products are an indication of poor image rejection
+	- [[D.]] Odd-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal within the band of interest
+- [[E4D12]] (C)
+What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 10 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB? #card
+	- [[A.]] -8dB
+	- [[B.]] -14dB
+	- [[C.]] +8dB
+	- [[D.]] +14dB
+- [[E4D13]] (A)
+What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 10 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB? #card
+	- [[A.]] -51 dBm
+	- [[B.]] -54 dBm
+	- [[C.]] -57 dBm
+	- [[D.]] -60 dBm
+- [[E4D14]] (D)
+What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] 100 microwatts
+	- [[B.]] 0.1 microwatt
+	- [[C.]] 0.001 microwatts
+	- [[D.]] 0.1 picowatts

pages/E4E.md

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+E4E Noise and interference: external RF interference; electrical and computer noise; line noise; DSP filtering and noise reduction; common-mode current; surge protectors; single point ground panel
+
+- [[E4E01]] (A)
+What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] Removal of the CW signal as well as the interfering carrier
+	- [[B.]] Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will overwhelm the desired signal
+	- [[C.]] Excessive ringing
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4E02]] (D)
+Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction? #card
+	- [[A.]] Broadband white noise
+	- [[B.]] Ignition noise
+	- [[C.]] Power line noise
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4E03]] (B)
+Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker? #card
+	- [[A.]] Broadband white noise
+	- [[B.]] Impulse noise
+	- [[C.]] Hum and buzz
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4E04]] (D)
+How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed? #card
+	- [[A.]] By installing filter capacitors in series with the alternator leads
+	- [[B.]] By installing a noise suppression resistor and a blocking capacitor at the battery
+	- [[C.]] By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio’s power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the antenna feed line
+	- [[D.]] By installing ferrite chokes on the charging system leads
+- [[E4E05]] (B)
+What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor? #card
+	- [[A.]] A high-pass filter in series with the motor’s power leads
+	- [[B.]] A brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor’s power leads
+	- [[C.]] A bypass capacitor in series with the motor’s field winding
+	- [[D.]] A bypass choke in parallel with the motor’s field winding
+- [[E4E06]] (C)
+What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment? #card
+	- [[A.]] A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station’s receiver
+	- [[B.]] A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds
+	- [[C.]] The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies
+	- [[D.]] A whining-type noise that continually pulses off and on
+- [[E4E07]] (B)
+Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference? #card
+	- [[A.]] Low inductance ground connections at both ends of the shield
+	- [[B.]] Common-mode currents on the shield and conductors
+	- [[C.]] Use of braided shielding material
+	- [[D.]] Tying all ground connections to a common point resulting in differential-mode currents in the shield
+- [[E4E08]] (B)
+What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable? #card
+	- [[A.]] Differential-mode current
+	- [[B.]] Common-mode current
+	- [[C.]] Reactive current only
+	- [[D.]] Magnetically-coupled current only
+- [[E4E09]] (C)
+What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker? #card
+	- [[A.]] Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect
+	- [[B.]] The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed
+	- [[C.]] Strong signals may be distorted and appear to cause spurious emissions
+	- [[D.]] FM signals can no longer be demodulated
+- [[E4E10]] (D)
+Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference? #card
+	- [[A.]] Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device
+	- [[B.]] A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence
+	- [[C.]] A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E4E11]] (B)
+What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands? #card
+	- [[A.]] One or more of the broadcast stations is transmitting an over-modulated signal
+	- [[B.]] Nearby corroded metal connections are mixing and reradiating the broadcast signals
+	- [[C.]] You are receiving skywave signals from a distant station
+	- [[D.]] Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is overloaded
+- [[E4E12]] (A)
+What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range? #card
+	- [[A.]] Switch-mode power supplies
+	- [[B.]] Radar transmitters
+	- [[C.]] Wireless security camera transmitters
+	- [[D.]] Electric fences
+- [[E4E13]] (C)
+Where should a station AC surge protector be installed? #card
+	- [[A.]] At the AC service panel
+	- [[B.]] At an AC outlet
+	- [[C.]] On the single point ground panel
+	- [[D.]] On a ground rod outside the station
+- [[E4E14]] (D)
+What is the purpose of a single point ground panel? #card
+	- [[A.]] Remove AC power in case of a short-circuit
+	- [[B.]] Prevent common-mode transients in multi-wire systems
+	- [[C.]] Eliminate air gaps between protected and non-protected circuits
+	- [[D.]] Ensure all lightning protectors activate at the same time

pages/E5-1.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131918468_0.png)

pages/E5A.md

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+E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits; series and parallel resonance; definitions and effects of Q; half-power bandwidth
+
+- [[E5A01]] (A)
+What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit? #card
+	- [[A.]] Resonance
+	- [[B.]] Capacitance
+	- [[C.]] Low quality factor (Q)
+	- [[D.]] Resistance
+- [[E5A02]] (C)
+What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads? #card
+	- [[A.]] 44.72 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 22.36 MHz
+	- [[C.]] 3.56 MHz
+	- [[D.]] 1.78 MHz
+- [[E5A03]] (D)
+What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] High, compared to the circuit resistance
+	- [[B.]] Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
+	- [[C.]] Approximately equal to inductive reactance
+	- [[D.]] Approximately equal to circuit resistance
+- [[E5A04]] (A)
+What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Approximately equal to circuit resistance
+	- [[B.]] Approximately equal to inductive reactance
+	- [[C.]] Low compared to the circuit resistance
+	- [[D.]] High compared to the circuit resistance
+- [[E5A05]] (A)
+What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit? #card
+	- [[A.]] Matching bandwidth is decreased
+	- [[B.]] Matching bandwidth is increased
+	- [[C.]] Losses increase
+	- [[D.]] Harmonics increase
+- [[E5A06]] (B)
+What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is at a minimum
+	- [[B.]] It is at a maximum
+	- [[C.]] It equals 1 divided by the quantity 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
+	- [[D.]] It equals 2 times pi, times the square root of (inductance L multiplied by capacitance C)
+- [[E5A07]] (A)
+What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Minimum
+	- [[B.]] Maximum
+	- [[C.]] R/L
+	- [[D.]] L/R
+- [[E5A08]] (C)
+What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees
+	- [[B.]] The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees
+	- [[C.]] The voltage and current are in phase
+	- [[D.]] The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
+- [[E5A09]] (C)
+How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance divided by the resistance
+	- [[B.]] Reactance of either the inductance or capacitance multiplied by the resistance
+	- [[C.]] Resistance divided by the reactance of either the inductance or capacitance
+	- [[D.]] Reactance of the inductance multiplied by the reactance of the capacitance
+- [[E5A10]] (A)
+What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads? #card
+	- [[A.]] 7.12 MHz
+	- [[B.]] 23.5 kHz
+	- [[C.]] 7.12 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 23.5 MHz
+- [[E5A11]] (C)
+What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? #card
+	- [[A.]] 157.8 Hz
+	- [[B.]] 315.6 Hz
+	- [[C.]] 47.3 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 23.67 kHz
+- [[E5A12]] (C)
+What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? #card
+	- [[A.]] 436.6 kHz
+	- [[B.]] 218.3 kHz
+	- [[C.]] 31.4 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 15.7 kHz
+- [[E5A13]] (C)
+What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit? #card
+	- [[A.]] Fewer components are needed for the same performance
+	- [[B.]] Parasitic effects are minimized
+	- [[C.]] Internal voltages increase
+	- [[D.]] Phase shift can become uncontrolled

pages/E5B.md

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+E5B Time constants and phase relationships: RL and RC time constants; phase angle in reactive circuits and components; admittance and susceptance
+
+- [[E5B01]] (B)
+What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage? #card
+	- [[A.]] An exponential rate of one
+	- [[B.]] One time constant
+	- [[C.]] One exponential period
+	- [[D.]] A time factor of one
+- [[E5B02]] (D)
+What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance? #card
+	- [[A.]] G
+	- [[B.]] X
+	- [[C.]] Y
+	- [[D.]] B
+- [[E5B03]] (B)
+How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Take the reciprocal of the angle and change the sign of the magnitude
+	- [[B.]] Take the reciprocal of the magnitude and change the sign of the angle
+	- [[C.]] Take the square root of the magnitude and add 180 degrees to the angle
+	- [[D.]] Square the magnitude and subtract 90 degrees from the angle
+- [[E5B04]] (D)
+What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel? #card
+	- [[A.]] 55 seconds
+	- [[B.]] 110 seconds
+	- [[C.]] 440 seconds
+	- [[D.]] 220 seconds
+- [[E5B05]] (D)
+What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is unchanged
+	- [[B.]] The sign is reversed
+	- [[C.]] It is shifted by 90 degrees
+	- [[D.]] It is replaced by its reciprocal
+- [[E5B06]] (C)
+What is susceptance? #card
+	- [[A.]] The magnetic impedance of a circuit
+	- [[B.]] The ratio of magnetic field to electric field
+	- [[C.]] The imaginary part of admittance
+	- [[D.]] A measure of the efficiency of a transformer
+- [[E5B07]] (C)
+What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+	- [[B.]] 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+	- [[C.]] 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+	- [[D.]] 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+- [[E5B08]] (A)
+What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+	- [[B.]] 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+	- [[C.]] 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+	- [[D.]] 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+- [[E5B09]] (D)
+What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Voltage and current are in phase
+	- [[B.]] Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
+	- [[C.]] Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
+	- [[D.]] Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
+- [[E5B10]] (A)
+What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Voltage leads current by 90 degrees
+	- [[B.]] Current leads voltage by 90 degrees
+	- [[C.]] Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase
+	- [[D.]] Voltage and current are in phase
+- [[E5B11]] (B)
+What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 27 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+	- [[B.]] 27 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+	- [[C.]] 63 degrees with the voltage lagging the current
+	- [[D.]] 63 degrees with the voltage leading the current
+- [[E5B12]] (A)
+What is admittance? #card
+	- [[A.]] The inverse of impedance
+	- [[B.]] The term for the gain of a field effect transistor
+	- [[C.]] The inverse of reactance
+	- [[D.]] The term for the on-impedance of a field effect transistor

pages/E5C.md

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+E5C Coordinate systems and phasors in electronics: rectangular coordinates; polar coordinates; phasors; logarithmic axes
+
+- [[E5C01]] (A)
+  Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0 - j100
+	- [[B.]] 0 + j100
+	- [[C.]] 100 - j0
+	- [[D.]] 100 + j0
+- [[E5C02]] (C)
+  How are impedances described in polar coordinates? #card
+	- [[A.]] By X and R values
+	- [[B.]] By real and imaginary parts
+	- [[C.]] By magnitude and phase angle
+	- [[D.]] By Y and G values
+- [[E5C03]] (C)
+  Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates? #card
+	- [[A.]] A positive 45 degree phase angle
+	- [[B.]] A negative 45 degree phase angle
+	- [[C.]] A positive 90 degree phase angle
+	- [[D.]] A negative 90 degree phase angle
+- [[E5C04]] (D)
+  What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response? #card
+	- [[A.]] Linear
+	- [[B.]] Scatter
+	- [[C.]] Random
+	- [[D.]] Logarithmic
+- [[E5C05]] (C)
+  What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Venn diagram
+	- [[B.]] Near field diagram
+	- [[C.]] Phasor diagram
+	- [[D.]] Far field diagram
+- [[E5C06]] (B)
+  What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms inductive reactance
+	- [[B.]] 50 ohms resistance in series with 25 ohms capacitive reactance
+	- [[C.]] 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms inductive reactance
+	- [[D.]] 25 ohms resistance in series with 50 ohms capacitive reactance
+- [[E5C07]] (D)
+  Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates? #card
+	- [[A.]] On the vertical axis
+	- [[B.]] On a line through the origin, slanted at 45 degrees
+	- [[C.]] On a horizontal line, offset vertically above the horizontal axis
+	- [[D.]] On the horizontal axis
+- [[E5C08]] (D)
+  What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Maidenhead grid
+	- [[B.]] Faraday grid
+	- [[C.]] Elliptical coordinates
+	- [[D.]] Polar coordinates
+- [[E5C09]] (A)
+  When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] The X axis represents the resistive component, and the Y axis represents the reactive component
+	- [[B.]] The X axis represents the reactive component, and the Y axis represents the resistive component
+	- [[C.]] The X axis represents the phase angle, and the Y axis represents the magnitude
+	- [[D.]] The X axis represents the magnitude, and the Y axis represents the phase angle
+- [[E5C10]] (B)
+  Which point on Figure [[E5-1]] best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131918468_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Point 2
+	- [[B.]] Point 4
+	- [[C.]] Point 5
+	- [[D.]] Point 6
+- [[E5C11]] (B)
+  Which point in Figure [[E5-1]] best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131918468_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Point 1
+	- [[B.]] Point 3
+	- [[C.]] Point 7
+	- [[D.]] Point 8
+- [[E5C12]] (A)
+  Which point on Figure [[E5-1]] best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131918468_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Point 1
+	- [[B.]] Point 3
+	- [[C.]] Point 7
+	- [[D.]] Point 8

pages/E5D.md

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+E5D RF effects in components and circuits: skin effect; real and reactive power; electrical length of conductors
+
+- [[E5D01]] (A)
+What is the result of conductor skin effect? #card
+	- [[A.]] Resistance increases as frequency increases because RF current flows closer to the surface
+	- [[B.]] Resistance decreases as frequency increases because electron mobility increases
+	- [[C.]] Resistance increases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
+	- [[D.]] Resistance decreases as temperature increases because of the change in thermal coefficient
+- [[E5D02]] (B)
+Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above? #card
+	- [[A.]] To increase the thermal time constant
+	- [[B.]] To minimize inductive reactance
+	- [[C.]] To maintain component lifetime
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E5D03]] (C)
+What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power? #card
+	- [[A.]] They are out of phase
+	- [[B.]] They are in phase
+	- [[C.]] They are 90 degrees out of phase
+	- [[D.]] They are 45 degrees out of phase
+- [[E5D04]] (B)
+Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] To increase neutralizing resistance
+	- [[B.]] To reduce phase shift along the connection
+	- [[C.]] To increase compensating capacitance
+	- [[D.]] To reduce noise figure
+- [[E5D05]] (C)
+What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF? #card
+	- [[A.]] Skin effect
+	- [[B.]] Shunt capacitance
+	- [[C.]] Inductance
+	- [[D.]] Dielectric leakage
+- [[E5D06]] (D)
+What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor’s self-resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Skin effect
+	- [[B.]] Dielectric loss
+	- [[C.]] Coupling
+	- [[D.]] Inter-turn capacitance
+- [[E5D07]] (B)
+What combines to create the self-resonance of a component? #card
+	- [[A.]] The component’s resistance and reactance
+	- [[B.]] The component’s nominal and parasitic reactance
+	- [[C.]] The component’s inductance and capacitance
+	- [[D.]] The component’s electrical length and impedance
+- [[E5D08]] (D)
+What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF? #card
+	- [[A.]] Inductance
+	- [[B.]] Dielectric loss
+	- [[C.]] Self-discharge
+	- [[D.]] Skin effect
+- [[E5D09]] (B)
+What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is dissipated as heat in the circuit
+	- [[B.]] Energy is stored in magnetic or electric fields, but power is not dissipated
+	- [[C.]] It is canceled by Coulomb forces in the capacitor and inductor
+	- [[D.]] It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields
+- [[E5D10]] (D)
+As a conductor’s diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length? #card
+	- [[A.]] Thickness has no effect on electrical length
+	- [[B.]] It varies randomly
+	- [[C.]] It decreases
+	- [[D.]] It increases
+- [[E5D11]] (B)
+How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere? #card
+	- [[A.]] 70.7 watts
+	- [[B.]] 100 watts
+	- [[C.]] 141.4 watts
+	- [[D.]] 200 watts
+- [[E5D12]] (D)
+What is reactive power? #card
+	- [[A.]] Power consumed in circuit Q
+	- [[B.]] Power consumed by an inductor’s wire resistance
+	- [[C.]] The power consumed in inductors and capacitors
+	- [[D.]] Wattless, nonproductive power

pages/E6-1.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131970050_0.png)

pages/E6-2.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132016477_0.png)
+	- assets:///home/chris/Documents/Logseq/Extra%20Study/assets/image_1746132016477_0.png

pages/E6-3.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132038698_0.png)

pages/E6A.md

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+E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; bipolar junction transistors; operation and types of field-effect transistors
+
+- [[E6A01]] (C)
+  In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material? #card
+	- [[A.]] In high-current rectifier circuits
+	- [[B.]] In high-power audio circuits
+	- [[C.]] In microwave circuits
+	- [[D.]] In very low-frequency RF circuits
+- [[E6A02]] (A)
+  Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons? #card
+	- [[A.]] N-type
+	- [[B.]] P-type
+	- [[C.]] Bipolar
+	- [[D.]] Insulated gate
+- [[E6A03]] (C)
+  Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased? #card
+	- [[A.]] Only P-type semiconductor material can conduct current
+	- [[B.]] Only N-type semiconductor material can conduct current
+	- [[C.]] Holes in P-type material and electrons in the N-type material are separated by the applied voltage, widening the depletion region
+	- [[D.]] Excess holes in P-type material combine with the electrons in N-type material, converting the entire diode into an insulator
+- [[E6A04]] (C)
+  What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? #card
+	- [[A.]] Insulator impurity
+	- [[B.]] N-type impurity
+	- [[C.]] Acceptor impurity
+	- [[D.]] Donor impurity
+- [[E6A05]] (C)
+  How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor? #card
+	- [[A.]] They are both low impedance
+	- [[B.]] An FET has lower input impedance
+	- [[C.]] An FET has higher input impedance
+	- [[D.]] They are both high impedance
+- [[E6A06]] (B)
+  What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? #card
+	- [[A.]] The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 0.707
+	- [[B.]] The change in collector current with respect to the change in base current
+	- [[C.]] The breakdown voltage of the base-to-collector junction
+	- [[D.]] The switching speed
+- [[E6A07]] (D)
+  Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on? #card
+	- [[A.]] Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 6 ohms to 7 ohms
+	- [[B.]] Base-to-emitter resistance of approximately 0.6 ohms to 0.7 ohms
+	- [[C.]] Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 6 volts to 7 volts
+	- [[D.]] Base-to-emitter voltage of approximately 0.6 volts to 0.7 volts
+- [[E6A08]] (D)
+  What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] Corner frequency
+	- [[B.]] Alpha rejection frequency
+	- [[C.]] Beta cutoff frequency
+	- [[D.]] Alpha cutoff frequency
+- [[E6A09]] (A)
+  What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)? #card
+	- [[A.]] An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
+	- [[B.]] An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied
+	- [[C.]] An FET that exhibits very high electron mobility due to a lack of holes in the N-type material
+	- [[D.]] An FET for which holes are the majority carriers
+- [[E6A10]] (B)
+  In Figure [[E6-1]], which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131970050_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 2
+	- [[B.]] 4
+	- [[C.]] 5
+	- [[D.]] 6
+- [[E6A11]] (A)
+  In Figure [[E6-1]], which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746131970050_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 1
+	- [[B.]] 2
+	- [[C.]] 3
+	- [[D.]] 6
+- [[E6A12]] (D)
+  What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain? #card
+	- [[A.]] To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage
+	- [[B.]] To protect the substrate from excessive voltages
+	- [[C.]] To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prevent the device from overheating
+	- [[D.]] To protect the gate from static damage

pages/E6B.md

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+E6B Diodes
+
+- [[E6B01]] (B)
+  What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode? #card
+	- [[A.]] A constant current drop under conditions of varying voltage
+	- [[B.]] A constant voltage drop under conditions of varying current
+	- [[C.]] A negative resistance region
+	- [[D.]] An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage
+- [[E6B02]] (D)
+  Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Much higher reverse voltage breakdown
+	- [[B.]] More constant reverse avalanche voltage
+	- [[C.]] Longer carrier retention time
+	- [[D.]] Lower forward voltage drop
+- [[E6B03]] (B)
+  What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop? #card
+	- [[A.]] Intrinsic resistance
+	- [[B.]] Band gap
+	- [[C.]] Junction capacitance
+	- [[D.]] Junction depth
+- [[E6B04]] (A)
+  What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Varactor diode
+	- [[B.]] Tunnel diode
+	- [[C.]] Silicon-controlled rectifier
+	- [[D.]] Zener diode
+- [[E6B05]] (D)
+  What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch? #card
+	- [[A.]] Extremely high reverse breakdown voltage
+	- [[B.]] Ability to dissipate large amounts of power
+	- [[C.]] Reverse bias controls its forward voltage drop
+	- [[D.]] Low junction capacitance
+- [[E6B06]] (D)
+  Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode? #card
+	- [[A.]] In oscillator circuits as the negative resistance element
+	- [[B.]] As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuit
+	- [[C.]] In power supplies as a constant voltage reference
+	- [[D.]] As a VHF/UHF mixer or detector
+- [[E6B07]] (B)
+  What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current? #card
+	- [[A.]] Excessive inverse voltage
+	- [[B.]] Excessive junction temperature
+	- [[C.]] Insufficient forward voltage
+	- [[D.]] Charge carrier depletion
+- [[E6B08]] (A)
+  Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode? #card
+	- [[A.]] Metal-semiconductor junction
+	- [[B.]] Electrolytic rectifier
+	- [[C.]] PIN junction
+	- [[D.]] Thermionic emission diode
+- [[E6B09]] (C)
+  What is a common use for point-contact diodes? #card
+	- [[A.]] As a constant current source
+	- [[B.]] As a constant voltage source
+	- [[C.]] As an RF detector
+	- [[D.]] As a high-voltage rectifier
+- [[E6B10]] (B)
+  In Figure [[E6-2]], which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132016477_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 1
+	- [[B.]] 6
+	- [[C.]] 2
+	- [[D.]] 3
+- [[E6B11]] (A)
+  What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode? #card
+	- [[A.]] Forward DC bias current
+	- [[B.]] A variable RF reference voltage
+	- [[C.]] Reverse voltage larger than the RF signal
+	- [[D.]] Capacitance of an RF coupling capacitor

pages/E6C.md

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+E6C Digital ICs: families of digital ICs; gates; programmable logic devices
+
+- [[E6C01]] (A)
+  What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator? #card
+	- [[A.]] To prevent input noise from causing unstable output signals
+	- [[B.]] To allow the comparator to be used with AC input signals
+	- [[C.]] To cause the output to continually change states
+	- [[D.]] To increase the sensitivity
+- [[E6C02]] (B)
+  What happens when the level of a comparator’s input signal crosses the threshold voltage? #card
+	- [[A.]] The IC input can be damaged
+	- [[B.]] The comparator changes its output state
+	- [[C.]] The reference level appears at the output
+	- [[D.]] The feedback loop becomes unstable
+- [[E6C03]] (A)
+  What is tri-state logic? #card
+	- [[A.]] Logic devices with 0, 1, and high-impedance output states
+	- [[B.]] Logic devices that utilize ternary math
+	- [[C.]] Logic with three output impedances which can be selected to better match the load impedance
+	- [[D.]] A counter with eight states
+- [[E6C04]] (C)
+  Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic? #card
+	- [[A.]] Its simplicity results in much less expensive devices than standard CMOS
+	- [[B.]] It is immune to electrostatic damage
+	- [[C.]] It has the high input impedance of CMOS and the low output impedance of bipolar transistors
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E6C05]] (D)
+  Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption? #card
+	- [[A.]] Schottky TTL
+	- [[B.]] ECL
+	- [[C.]] NMOS
+	- [[D.]] CMOS
+- [[E6C06]] (C)
+  Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply? #card
+	- [[A.]] Large bypass capacitance is inherent
+	- [[B.]] The input switching threshold is about twice the power supply voltage
+	- [[C.]] The input switching threshold is about half the power supply voltage
+	- [[D.]] Bandwidth is very limited
+- [[E6C07]] (B)
+  What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor? #card
+	- [[A.]] A resistor in a keying circuit used to reduce key clicks
+	- [[B.]] A resistor connected to the positive or negative supply used to establish a voltage when an input or output is an open circuit
+	- [[C.]] A resistor that ensures that an oscillator frequency does not drift
+	- [[D.]] A resistor connected to an op-amp output that prevents signals from exceeding the power supply voltage
+- [[E6C08]] (B)
+  In Figure [[E6-3]], which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132038698_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 1
+	- [[B.]] 2
+	- [[C.]] 3
+	- [[D.]] 4
+- [[E6C09]] (B)
+  What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)? #card
+	- [[A.]] Karnaugh maps
+	- [[B.]] Hardware description language (HDL)
+	- [[C.]] An auto-router
+	- [[D.]] Machine and assembly language
+- [[E6C10]] (D)
+  In Figure [[E6-3]], which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132038698_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 1
+	- [[B.]] 2
+	- [[C.]] 3
+	- [[D.]] 4
+- [[E6C11]] (C)
+  In Figure [[E6-3]], which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132038698_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] 2
+	- [[B.]] 4
+	- [[C.]] 5
+	- [[D.]] 6

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+E6D Inductors and piezoelectricity: permeability, core material and configuration; transformers; piezoelectric devices
+
+- [[E6D01]] (C)
+What is piezoelectricity? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ability of materials to generate electromagnetic waves of a certain frequency when voltage is applied
+	- [[B.]] A characteristic of materials that have an index of refraction which depends on the polarization of the electromagnetic wave passing through it
+	- [[C.]] A characteristic of materials that generate a voltage when stressed and that flex when a voltage is applied
+	- [[D.]] The ability of materials to generate voltage when an electromagnetic wave of a certain frequency is applied
+- [[E6D02]] (A)
+What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Series RLC in parallel with a shunt C representing electrode and stray capacitance
+	- [[B.]] Parallel RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
+	- [[C.]] Series RLC, where C is the parallel combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
+	- [[D.]] Parallel RLC, where C is the series combination of resonance capacitance of the crystal and electrode and stray capacitance
+- [[E6D03]] (A)
+Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect? #card
+	- [[A.]] Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a voltage
+	- [[B.]] Mechanical deformation of material due to the application of a magnetic field
+	- [[C.]] Generation of electrical energy in the presence of light
+	- [[D.]] Increased conductivity in the presence of light
+- [[E6D04]] (B)
+Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers? #card
+	- [[A.]] To simplify assembly during manufacturing
+	- [[B.]] To reduce power loss from eddy currents in the core
+	- [[C.]] To increase the cutoff frequency by reducing capacitance
+	- [[D.]] To save cost by reducing the amount of magnetic material
+- [[E6D05]] (C)
+How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core? #card
+	- [[A.]] Ferrite cores generally have lower initial permeability
+	- [[B.]] Ferrite cores generally have better temperature stability
+	- [[C.]] Ferrite cores generally require fewer turns to produce a given inductance value
+	- [[D.]] Ferrite cores are easier to use with surface-mount technology
+- [[E6D06]] (D)
+What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Permittivity
+	- [[B.]] Resistance
+	- [[C.]] Reactivity
+	- [[D.]] Permeability
+- [[E6D07]] (D)
+What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding? #card
+	- [[A.]] Stabilizing current
+	- [[B.]] Direct current
+	- [[C.]] Excitation current
+	- [[D.]] Magnetizing current
+- [[E6D08]] (B)
+Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics? #card
+	- [[A.]] Brass
+	- [[B.]] Powdered iron
+	- [[C.]] Ferrite
+	- [[D.]] Aluminum
+- [[E6D09]] (C)
+What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Electrolytic capacitors
+	- [[B.]] Butterworth filters
+	- [[C.]] Ferrite beads
+	- [[D.]] Steel-core toroids
+- [[E6D10]] (A)
+What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Toroidal cores confine most of the magnetic field within the core material
+	- [[B.]] Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy into other components
+	- [[C.]] Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresis
+	- [[D.]] Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics
+- [[E6D11]] (B)
+Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil? #card
+	- [[A.]] Ceramic
+	- [[B.]] Brass
+	- [[C.]] Ferrite
+	- [[D.]] Aluminum
+- [[E6D12]] (C)
+What causes inductor saturation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Operation at too high a frequency
+	- [[B.]] Selecting a core with low permeability
+	- [[C.]] Operation at excessive magnetic flux
+	- [[D.]] Selecting a core with excessive permittivity

pages/E6E.md

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+E6E Semiconductor materials and packages for RF use
+
+- [[E6E01]] (B)
+Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] Higher noise figures
+	- [[B.]] Higher electron mobility
+	- [[C.]] Lower junction voltage drop
+	- [[D.]] Lower transconductance
+- [[E6E02]] (A)
+Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type? #card
+	- [[A.]] DIP
+	- [[B.]] PLCC
+	- [[C.]] BGA
+	- [[D.]] SOT
+- [[E6E03]] (D)
+Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs? #card
+	- [[A.]] Silicon
+	- [[B.]] Silicon nitride
+	- [[C.]] Silicon dioxide
+	- [[D.]] Gallium nitride
+- [[E6E04]] (A)
+Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 ohms
+	- [[B.]] 300 ohms
+	- [[C.]] 450 ohms
+	- [[D.]] 75 ohms
+- [[E6E05]] (A)
+Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.5 dB
+	- [[B.]] -10 dB
+	- [[C.]] 44 dBm
+	- [[D.]] -20 dBm
+- [[E6E06]] (D)
+What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ability to retrieve information from a single signal, even in the presence of other strong signals
+	- [[B.]] Extremely high Q factor and high stability over a wide temperature range
+	- [[C.]] Nearly infinite gain, very high input impedance, and very low output impedance
+	- [[D.]] Controlled gain, low noise figure, and constant input and output impedance over the specified frequency range
+- [[E6E07]] (D)
+What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs? #card
+	- [[A.]] Miniature coax
+	- [[B.]] Circular waveguide
+	- [[C.]] Parallel wire
+	- [[D.]] Microstrip
+- [[E6E08]] (C)
+How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC? #card
+	- [[A.]] Through a capacitor and RF choke connected to the amplifier input lead
+	- [[B.]] MMICs require no operating bias
+	- [[C.]] Through a resistor and/or RF choke connected to the amplifier output lead
+	- [[D.]] Directly to the bias voltage (Vcc) lead
+- [[E6E09]] (D)
+Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range? #card
+	- [[A.]] TO-220
+	- [[B.]] Axial lead
+	- [[C.]] Radial lead
+	- [[D.]] Surface mount
+- [[E6E10]] (D)
+What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components? #card
+	- [[A.]] Smaller circuit area
+	- [[B.]] Shorter circuit board traces
+	- [[C.]] Components have less parasitic inductance and capacitance
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E6E11]] (D)
+What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits? #card
+	- [[A.]] Extremely low stray capacitance (dielectrically isolated package)
+	- [[B.]] Extremely high resistance between pins (doubly insulated package)
+	- [[C.]] Two chips in each package (dual in package)
+	- [[D.]] Two rows of connecting pins on opposite sides of package (dual in-line package)
+- [[E6E12]] (C)
+Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] Excessive dielectric loss
+	- [[B.]] Epoxy coating is conductive above 300 MHz
+	- [[C.]] Excessive lead length
+	- [[D.]] Unsuitable for combining analog and digital signals

pages/E6F.md

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+E6F Electro-optical technology: photoconductivity; photovoltaic devices; optical sensors and encoders; optically isolated switching
+
+- [[E6F01]] (C)
+What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell? #card
+	- [[A.]] Protons
+	- [[B.]] Photons
+	- [[C.]] Electrons
+	- [[D.]] Holes
+- [[E6F02]] (A)
+What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it? #card
+	- [[A.]] Resistance decreases
+	- [[B.]] Resistance increases
+	- [[C.]] Reflectivity increases
+	- [[D.]] Reflectivity decreases
+- [[E6F03]] (D)
+What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler? #card
+	- [[A.]] A lens and a photomultiplier
+	- [[B.]] A frequency-modulated helium-neon laser
+	- [[C.]] An amplitude-modulated helium-neon laser
+	- [[D.]] An LED and a phototransistor
+- [[E6F04]] (B)
+What is the photovoltaic effect? #card
+	- [[A.]] The conversion of voltage to current when exposed to light
+	- [[B.]] The conversion of light to electrical energy
+	- [[C.]] The effect that causes a photodiode to emit light when a voltage is applied
+	- [[D.]] The effect that causes a phototransistor’s beta to decrease when exposed to light
+- [[E6F05]] (A)
+Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder? #card
+	- [[A.]] A device that detects rotation by interrupting a light source with a patterned wheel
+	- [[B.]] A device that measures the strength of a beam of light using analog-to-digital conversion
+	- [[C.]] An optical computing device in which light is coupled between devices by fiber optics
+	- [[D.]] A device for generating RTTY signals by means of a rotating light source
+- [[E6F06]] (C)
+Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices? #card
+	- [[A.]] Polyphenol acetate
+	- [[B.]] Argon
+	- [[C.]] Crystalline semiconductor
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E6F07]] (B)
+What is a solid-state relay? #card
+	- [[A.]] A relay that uses transistors to drive the relay coil
+	- [[B.]] A device that uses semiconductors to implement the functions of an electromechanical relay
+	- [[C.]] A mechanical relay that latches in the on or off state each time it is pulsed
+	- [[D.]] A semiconductor switch that uses a monostable multivibrator circuit
+- [[E6F08]] (C)
+Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits? #card
+	- [[A.]] Optoisolators provide a low-impedance link between a control circuit and a power circuit
+	- [[B.]] Optoisolators provide impedance matching between the control circuit and power circuit
+	- [[C.]] Optoisolators provide an electrical isolation between a control circuit and the circuit being switched
+	- [[D.]] Optoisolators eliminate the effects of reflected light in the control circuit
+- [[E6F09]] (D)
+What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell? #card
+	- [[A.]] The output RF power divided by the input DC power
+	- [[B.]] The output in lumens divided by the input power in watts
+	- [[C.]] The open-circuit voltage divided by the short-circuit current under full illumination
+	- [[D.]] The relative fraction of light that is converted to current
+- [[E6F10]] (B)
+What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells? #card
+	- [[A.]] Selenium
+	- [[B.]] Silicon
+	- [[C.]] Cadmium sulfide
+	- [[D.]] Indium arsenide
+- [[E6F11]] (A)
+What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.5 volts
+	- [[B.]] 0.7 volts
+	- [[C.]] 1.1 volts
+	- [[D.]] 1.5 volts

pages/E7-1.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132073944_0.png)

pages/E7-2.md

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+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132104060_0.png){:height 663, :width 780}

pages/E7A.md

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+E7A Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits; classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
+
+- [[E7A01]] (C)
+Which circuit is bistable? #card
+	- [[A.]] An AND gate
+	- [[B.]] An OR gate
+	- [[C.]] A flip-flop
+	- [[D.]] A bipolar amplifier
+- [[E7A02]] (A)
+What is the function of a decade counter? #card
+	- [[A.]] It produces one output pulse for every 10 input pulses
+	- [[B.]] It decodes a decimal number for display on a seven-segment LED display
+	- [[C.]] It produces 10 output pulses for every input pulse
+	- [[D.]] It decodes a binary number for display on a seven-segment LED display
+- [[E7A03]] (B)
+Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2? #card
+	- [[A.]] An XOR gate
+	- [[B.]] A flip-flop
+	- [[C.]] An OR gate
+	- [[D.]] A multiplexer
+- [[E7A04]] (A)
+How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16? #card
+	- [[A.]] 4
+	- [[B.]] 6
+	- [[C.]] 8
+	- [[D.]] 16
+- [[E7A05]] (D)
+Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Monostable multivibrator
+	- [[B.]] J-K flip-flop
+	- [[C.]] T flip-flop
+	- [[D.]] Astable multivibrator
+- [[E7A06]] (A)
+What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator? #card
+	- [[A.]] It switches temporarily to an alternate state for a set time
+	- [[B.]] It produces a continuous square wave
+	- [[C.]] It stores one bit of data
+	- [[D.]] It maintains a constant output voltage, regardless of variations in the input voltage
+- [[E7A07]] (D)
+What logical operation does a NAND gate perform? #card
+	- [[A.]] It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
+	- [[B.]] It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
+	- [[C.]] It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
+	- [[D.]] It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 1
+- [[E7A08]] (A)
+What logical operation does an OR gate perform? #card
+	- [[A.]] It produces a 1 at its output if any input is 1
+	- [[B.]] It produces a 0 at its output if all inputs are 1
+	- [[C.]] It produces a 0 at its output if some but not all inputs are 1
+	- [[D.]] It produces a 1 at its output if all inputs are 0
+- [[E7A09]] (C)
+What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate? #card
+	- [[A.]] It produces a 0 at its output only if all inputs are 0
+	- [[B.]] It produces a 1 at its output only if all inputs are 1
+	- [[C.]] It produces a 0 at its output if one and only one of its inputs is 1
+	- [[D.]] It produces a 1 at its output if one and only one input is 1
+- [[E7A10]] (B)
+What is a truth table? #card
+	- [[A.]] A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for an op-amp
+	- [[B.]] A list of inputs and corresponding outputs for a digital device
+	- [[C.]] A diagram showing logic states when the digital gate output is true
+	- [[D.]] A table of logic symbols that indicate the logic states of an op-amp
+- [[E7A11]] (B)
+What does “positive logic” mean in reference to logic devices? 
+	- [[A.]] The logic devices have high noise immunity
+	- [[B.]] High voltage represents a 1, low voltage a 0
+	- [[C.]] The logic circuit is in the “true” condition
+	- [[D.]] 1s and 0s are defined as different positive voltage levels

pages/E7B.md

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+E7B Amplifiers: class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; switching-type amplifiers
+
+- [[E7B01]] (A)
+  For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct? #card
+	- [[A.]] More than 180 degrees but less than 360 degrees
+	- [[B.]] Exactly 180 degrees
+	- [[C.]] The entire cycle
+	- [[D.]] Less than 180 degrees
+- [[E7B02]] (A)
+  What is a Class D amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] An amplifier that uses switching technology to achieve high efficiency
+	- [[B.]] A low power amplifier that uses a differential amplifier for improved linearity
+	- [[C.]] An amplifier that uses drift-mode FETs for high efficiency
+	- [[D.]] An amplifier biased to be relatively free from distortion
+- [[E7B03]] (A)
+  What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] A filter to remove harmonic content
+	- [[B.]] A high-pass filter to compensate for low gain at low frequencies
+	- [[C.]] A matched load resistor to prevent damage by switching transients
+	- [[D.]] A temperature compensating load resistor to improve linearity
+- [[E7B04]] (A)
+  What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Approximately halfway between saturation and cutoff
+	- [[B.]] Approximately halfway between the emitter voltage and the base voltage
+	- [[C.]] At a point where the bias resistor equals the load resistor
+	- [[D.]] At a point where the load line intersects the zero bias current curve
+- [[E7B05]] (C)
+  What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Tune the stage for minimum loading
+	- [[B.]] Tune both the input and output for maximum power
+	- [[C.]] Install parasitic suppressors and/or neutralize the stage
+	- [[D.]] Use a phase inverter in the output filter
+- [[E7B06]] (B)
+  What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] High power gain
+	- [[B.]] Low input impedance
+	- [[C.]] High electrostatic damage protection
+	- [[D.]] Low bandwidth
+- [[E7B07]] (D)
+  Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reduced intermodulation products
+	- [[B.]] Increased overall intelligibility
+	- [[C.]] Reduced third-order intermodulation
+	- [[D.]] Signal distortion and excessive bandwidth
+- [[E7B08]] (B)
+  Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers? #card
+	- [[A.]] Switching amplifiers operate at higher voltages
+	- [[B.]] The switching device is at saturation or cutoff most of the time
+	- [[C.]] Linear amplifiers have high gain resulting in higher harmonic content
+	- [[D.]] Switching amplifiers use push-pull circuits
+- [[E7B09]] (D)
+  What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Low input impedance and phase inversion from input to output
+	- [[B.]] Differential inputs and single output
+	- [[C.]] Acts as an OR circuit if one input is grounded
+	- [[D.]] Input and output signals in-phase
+- [[E7B10]] (B)
+  In Figure [[E7-1]], what is the purpose of R1 and R2? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132073944_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Load resistors
+	- [[B.]] Voltage divider bias
+	- [[C.]] Self bias
+	- [[D.]] Feedback
+- [[E7B11]] (D)
+  In Figure [[E7-1]], what is the purpose of R3? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132073944_0.png)
+	-
+	- [[A.]] Fixed bias
+	- [[B.]] Emitter bypass
+	- [[C.]] Output load resistor
+	- [[D.]] Self bias
+- [[E7B12]] (C)
+  What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure [[E7-1]]? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132073944_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Common base
+	- [[B.]] Common collector
+	- [[C.]] Common emitter
+	- [[D.]] Emitter follower

pages/E7C.md

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+E7C Filters and matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching
+
+- [[E7C01]] (D)
+How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network’s input and output? #card
+	- [[A.]] Two inductors are in series between the input and output, and a capacitor is connected between the two inductors and ground
+	- [[B.]] Two capacitors are in series between the input and output, and an inductor is connected between the two capacitors and ground
+	- [[C.]] An inductor is connected between the input and ground, another inductor is connected between the output and ground, and a capacitor is connected between the input and output
+	- [[D.]] A capacitor is connected between the input and ground, another capacitor is connected between the output and ground, and an inductor is connected between the input and output
+- [[E7C02]] (B)
+What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Low-pass 
+	- [[B.]] High-pass 
+	- [[C.]] Band-pass 
+	- [[D.]] Notch 
+- [[E7C03]] (A)
+What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network? #card
+	- [[A.]] Greater harmonic suppression
+	- [[B.]] Higher efficiency
+	- [[C.]] To eliminate one capacitor
+	- [[D.]] Greater transformation range
+- [[E7C04]] (C)
+How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance? #card
+	- [[A.]] It introduces negative resistance to cancel the resistive part of impedance
+	- [[B.]] It introduces transconductance to cancel the reactive part of impedance
+	- [[C.]] It cancels the reactive part of the impedance and changes the resistive part to the desired value
+	- [[D.]] Reactive currents are dissipated in matched resistances
+- [[E7C05]] (D)
+Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff? #card
+	- [[A.]] A Butterworth filter
+	- [[B.]] An active LC filter
+	- [[C.]] A passive op-amp filter
+	- [[D.]] A Chebyshev filter
+- [[E7C06]] (C)
+What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Gradual passband rolloff with minimal stop-band ripple
+	- [[B.]] Extremely flat response over its pass band with gradually rounded stop-band corners
+	- [[C.]] Extremely sharp cutoff with one or more notches in the stop band
+	- [[D.]] Gradual passband rolloff with extreme stop-band ripple
+- [[E7C07]] (B)
+Which describes a Pi-L network? #card
+	- [[A.]] A Phase Inverter Load network
+	- [[B.]] A Pi-network with an additional output series inductor
+	- [[C.]] A network with only three discrete parts
+	- [[D.]] A matching network in which all components are isolated from ground
+- [[E7C08]] (B)
+Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers? #card
+	- [[A.]] A Sallen-Key filter
+	- [[B.]] A helical filter
+	- [[C.]] A swinging choke filter
+	- [[D.]] A finite impulse response filter
+- [[E7C09]] (D)
+What is a crystal lattice filter? #card
+	- [[A.]] A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystals
+	- [[B.]] An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1 kHz intervals
+	- [[C.]] A filter using lattice-shaped quartz crystals for high-Q performance
+	- [[D.]] A filter for low-level signals made using quartz crystals
+- [[E7C10]] (B)
+Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer? #card
+	- [[A.]] A crystal filter
+	- [[B.]] A cavity filter
+	- [[C.]] A DSP filter
+	- [[D.]] An L-C filter
+- [[E7C11]] (C)
+Which of the following measures a filter’s ability to reject signals in adjacent channels? #card
+	- [[A.]] Passband ripple
+	- [[B.]] Phase response
+	- [[C.]] Shape factor
+	- [[D.]] Noise factor

pages/E7D.md

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+E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators; solar array charge controllers
+
+- [[E7D01]] (D)
+  How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work? #card
+	- [[A.]] It has a ramp voltage as its output
+	- [[B.]] It eliminates the need for a pass transistor
+	- [[C.]] The control element duty cycle is proportional to the line or load conditions
+	- [[D.]] The conduction of a control element is varied to maintain a constant output voltage
+- [[E7D02]] (B)
+  How does a switchmode voltage regulator work? #card
+	- [[A.]] By alternating the output between positive and negative voltages
+	- [[B.]] By varying the duty cycle of pulses input to a filter
+	- [[C.]] By varying the conductivity of a pass element
+	- [[D.]] By switching between two Zener diode reference voltages
+- [[E7D03]] (A)
+  What device is used as a stable voltage reference? #card
+	- [[A.]] A Zener diode
+	- [[B.]] A digital-to-analog converter
+	- [[C.]] An SCR
+	- [[D.]] An analog-to-digital converter
+- [[E7D04]] (B)
+  Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator? #card
+	- [[A.]] A series current source
+	- [[B.]] A series regulator
+	- [[C.]] A shunt regulator
+	- [[D.]] A shunt current source
+- [[E7D05]] (D)
+  Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source? #card
+	- [[A.]] A constant current source
+	- [[B.]] A series regulator
+	- [[C.]] A shunt current source
+	- [[D.]] A shunt regulator
+- [[E7D06]] (C)
+  What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure [[E7-2]]? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132118494_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] It provides negative feedback to improve regulation
+	- [[B.]] It provides a constant load for the voltage source
+	- [[C.]] It controls the current to keep the output voltage constant
+	- [[D.]] It provides regulation by switching or “chopping” the input DC voltage
+- [[E7D07]] (A)
+  What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure [[E7-2]]? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132124439_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] It bypasses rectifier output ripple around D1
+	- [[B.]] It is a brute force filter for the output
+	- [[C.]] To prevent self-oscillation
+	- [[D.]] To provide fixed DC bias for Q1
+- [[E7D08]] (C)
+  What type of circuit is shown in Figure [[E7-2]]? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746132112640_0.png)
+	- [[A.]] Switching voltage regulator
+	- [[B.]] Common emitter amplifier
+	- [[C.]] Linear voltage regulator
+	- [[D.]] Common base amplifier
+- [[E7D09]] (C)
+  How is battery operating time calculated? #card
+	- [[A.]] Average current divided by capacity in amp-hours
+	- [[B.]] Average current divided by internal resistance
+	- [[C.]] Capacity in amp-hours divided by average current
+	- [[D.]] Internal resistance divided by average current
+- [[E7D10]] (C)
+  Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply? #card
+	- [[A.]] The inverter design does not require an output filter circuit
+	- [[B.]] The control circuitry uses less current, therefore smaller heat sinks are required
+	- [[C.]] The high frequency inverter design uses much smaller transformers and filter components for an equivalent power output
+	- [[D.]] It recovers power from the unused portion of the AC cycle, thus using fewer components
+- [[E7D11]] (D)
+  What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reduce AC ripple on the output
+	- [[B.]] Maintain voltage with varying illumination levels
+	- [[C.]] Prevent discharge when panel is not illuminated
+	- [[D.]] Convert the panel’s output from DC to AC
+- [[E7D12]] (C)
+  What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator? #card
+	- [[A.]] Minimum input voltage for rated power dissipation
+	- [[B.]] Maximum output voltage drop when the input voltage is varied over its specified range
+	- [[C.]] Minimum input-to-output voltage required to maintain regulation
+	- [[D.]] Maximum that the output voltage may decrease at rated load
+- [[E7D13]] (C)
+  Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator? #card
+	- [[A.]] Input voltage multiplied by input current
+	- [[B.]] Input voltage divided by output current
+	- [[C.]] Voltage difference from input to output multiplied by output current
+	- [[D.]] Output voltage multiplied by output current
+- [[E7D14]] (D)
+  What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series? #card
+	- [[A.]] Equalize the voltage across each capacitor
+	- [[B.]] Discharge the capacitors when voltage is removed
+	- [[C.]] Provide a minimum load on the supply
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E7D15]] (D)
+  What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply? #card
+	- [[A.]] To provide a dual-voltage output for reduced power applications
+	- [[B.]] To compensate for variations of the incoming line voltage
+	- [[C.]] To prevent arcing across the input power switch or relay contacts
+	- [[D.]] To allow the filter capacitors to charge gradually

pages/E7E.md

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+E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase, and balanced modulators; detectors; mixers
+
+- [[E7E01]] (B)
+Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] Balanced modulation of the audio amplifier
+	- [[B.]] Reactance modulation of a local oscillator
+	- [[C.]] Reactance modulation of the final amplifier
+	- [[D.]] Balanced modulation of a local oscillator
+- [[E7E02]] (D)
+What is the function of a reactance modulator? #card
+	- [[A.]] Produce PM or FM signals by varying a resistance
+	- [[B.]] Produce AM signals by varying an inductance
+	- [[C.]] Produce AM signals by varying a resistance
+	- [[D.]] Produce PM or FM signals by varying a capacitance
+- [[E7E03]] (D)
+What is a frequency discriminator? #card
+	- [[A.]] An FM generator circuit
+	- [[B.]] A circuit for filtering closely adjacent signals
+	- [[C.]] An automatic band-switching circuit
+	- [[D.]] A circuit for detecting FM signals
+- [[E7E04]] (A)
+What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Use a balanced modulator followed by a filter
+	- [[B.]] Use a reactance modulator followed by a mixer
+	- [[C.]] Use a loop modulator followed by a mixer
+	- [[D.]] Use a product detector with a DSB signal
+- [[E7E05]] (D)
+What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies? #card
+	- [[A.]] A de-emphasis network
+	- [[B.]] A harmonic enhancer
+	- [[C.]] A heterodyne enhancer
+	- [[D.]] A pre-emphasis network
+- [[E7E06]] (A)
+Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers? #card
+	- [[A.]] For compatibility with transmitters using phase modulation
+	- [[B.]] To reduce impulse noise reception
+	- [[C.]] For higher efficiency
+	- [[D.]] To remove third-order distortion products
+- [[E7E07]] (B)
+What is meant by the term “baseband” in radio communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] The lowest frequency band that the transmitter or receiver covers
+	- [[B.]] The frequency range occupied by a message signal prior to modulation
+	- [[C.]] The unmodulated bandwidth of the transmitted signal
+	- [[D.]] The basic oscillator frequency in an FM transmitter that is multiplied to increase the deviation and carrier frequency
+- [[E7E08]] (C)
+What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Two and four times the input frequency
+	- [[B.]] The square root of the product of input frequencies
+	- [[C.]] The two input frequencies along with their sum and difference frequencies
+	- [[D.]] 1.414 and 0.707 times the input frequency
+- [[E7E09]] (A)
+What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high? #card
+	- [[A.]] Spurious mixer products are generated
+	- [[B.]] Mixer blanking occurs
+	- [[C.]] Automatic limiting occurs
+	- [[D.]] Excessive AGC voltage levels are generated
+- [[E7E10]] (A)
+How does a diode envelope detector function? #card
+	- [[A.]] By rectification and filtering of RF signals
+	- [[B.]] By breakdown of the Zener voltage
+	- [[C.]] By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
+	- [[D.]] By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency
+- [[E7E11]] (C)
+Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] Discriminator
+	- [[B.]] Phase detector
+	- [[C.]] Product detector
+	- [[D.]] Phase comparator

pages/E7F.md

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+E7F Software defined radio fundamentals: digital signal processing (DSP) filtering, modulation, and demodulation; analog-digital conversion; digital filters
+
+- [[E7F01]] (C)
+What is meant by “direct sampling” in software defined radios? #card
+	- [[A.]] Software is converted from source code to object code during operation of the receiver
+	- [[B.]] I and Q signals are generated by digital processing without the use of RF amplification
+	- [[C.]] Incoming RF is digitized by an analog-to-digital converter without being mixed with a local oscillator signal
+	- [[D.]] A switching mixer is used to generate I and Q signals directly from the RF input
+- [[E7F02]] (A)
+What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] An adaptive filter
+	- [[B.]] A crystal-lattice filter
+	- [[C.]] A Hilbert-transform filter
+	- [[D.]] A phase-inverting filter
+- [[E7F03]] (C)
+What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] An adaptive filter
+	- [[B.]] A notch filter
+	- [[C.]] A Hilbert-transform filter
+	- [[D.]] An elliptical filter
+- [[E7F04]] (D)
+Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing? #card
+	- [[A.]] Mixing products are converted to voltages and subtracted by adder circuits
+	- [[B.]] A frequency synthesizer removes unwanted sidebands
+	- [[C.]] Varying quartz crystal characteristics are emulated in digital form
+	- [[D.]] Signals are combined in quadrature phase relationship
+- [[E7F05]] (B)
+How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced? #card
+	- [[A.]] At least half the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
+	- [[B.]] At least twice the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
+	- [[C.]] At the same rate as the highest frequency component of the signal
+	- [[D.]] At four times the rate of the highest frequency component of the signal
+- [[E7F06]] (D)
+What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt? #card
+	- [[A.]] 4 bits
+	- [[B.]] 6 bits
+	- [[C.]] 8 bits
+	- [[D.]] 10 bits
+- [[E7F07]] (C)
+What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform? #card
+	- [[A.]] Converting analog signals to digital form
+	- [[B.]] Converting digital signals to analog form
+	- [[C.]] Converting signals from the time domain to the frequency domain
+	- [[D.]] Converting signals from the frequency domain to the time domain
+- [[E7F08]] (B)
+What is the function of decimation? #card
+	- [[A.]] Converting data to binary-coded decimal form
+	- [[B.]] Reducing the effective sample rate by removing samples
+	- [[C.]] Attenuating the signal
+	- [[D.]] Removing unnecessary significant digits
+- [[E7F09]] (A)
+Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator? #card
+	- [[A.]] It removes high-frequency signal components that would otherwise be reproduced as lower frequency components
+	- [[B.]] It peaks the response of the decimator, improving bandwidth
+	- [[C.]] It removes low-frequency signal components to eliminate the need for DC restoration
+	- [[D.]] It notches out the sampling frequency to avoid sampling errors
+- [[E7F10]] (A)
+What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)? #card
+	- [[A.]] Sample rate
+	- [[B.]] Sample width in bits
+	- [[C.]] Integral non-linearity
+	- [[D.]] Differential non-linearity
+- [[E7F11]] (B)
+What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise? #card
+	- [[A.]] Sample clock phase noise
+	- [[B.]] Reference voltage level and sample width in bits
+	- [[C.]] Data storage transfer rate
+	- [[D.]] Missing codes and jitter
+- [[E7F12]] (A)
+Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters? #card
+	- [[A.]] FIR filters can delay all frequency components of the signal by the same amount
+	- [[B.]] FIR filters are easier to implement for a given set of passband rolloff requirements
+	- [[C.]] FIR filters can respond faster to impulses
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E7F13]] (D)
+What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter? #card
+	- [[A.]] To reduce excess signal pressure levels
+	- [[B.]] Provide access for debugging software
+	- [[C.]] Select the point at which baseband signals are generated
+	- [[D.]] Provide incremental signal delays for filter algorithms
+- [[E7F14]] (B)
+Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response? #card
+	- [[A.]] Higher data rate
+	- [[B.]] More taps
+	- [[C.]] Lower Q
+	- [[D.]] Double-precision math routines

pages/E7G.md

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+E7G Operational amplifiers: characteristics and applications
+
+- [[E7G01]] (A)
+What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp? #card
+	- [[A.]] Very low
+	- [[B.]] Very high
+	- [[C.]] 100 ohms
+	- [[D.]] 10,000 ohms
+- [[E7G02]] (B)
+What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor? #card
+	- [[A.]] High-pass filter
+	- [[B.]] Low-pass filter
+	- [[C.]] Band-pass filter
+	- [[D.]] Notch filter
+- [[E7G03]] (D)
+What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp? #card
+	- [[A.]] 100 ohms
+	- [[B.]] 10,000 ohms
+	- [[C.]] Very low
+	- [[D.]] Very high
+- [[E7G04]] (C)
+What is meant by the term “op-amp input offset voltage”? #card
+	- [[A.]] The output voltage of the op-amp minus its input voltage
+	- [[B.]] The difference between the output voltage of the op-amp and the input voltage required in the immediately following stage
+	- [[C.]] The differential input voltage needed to bring the open loop output voltage to zero
+	- [[D.]] The potential between the amplifier input terminals of the op-amp in an open loop condition
+- [[E7G05]] (A)
+How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Restrict both gain and Q
+	- [[B.]] Restrict gain but increase Q
+	- [[C.]] Restrict Q but increase gain
+	- [[D.]] Increase both gain and Q
+- [[E7G06]] (B)
+What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] The maximum frequency for a filter circuit using that type of amplifier
+	- [[B.]] The frequency at which the open-loop gain of the amplifier equals one
+	- [[C.]] The gain of the amplifier at a filter’s cutoff frequency
+	- [[D.]] The frequency at which the amplifier’s offset voltage is zero
+- [[E7G07]] (C)
+What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7‑3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.21
+	- [[B.]] 4700
+	- [[C.]] 47
+	- [[D.]] 24
+- [[E7G08]] (D)
+How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] It increases linearly with increasing frequency
+	- [[B.]] It decreases linearly with increasing frequency
+	- [[C.]] It decreases logarithmically with increasing frequency
+	- [[D.]] It does not vary with frequency
+- [[E7G09]] (D)
+What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.23 volts
+	- [[B.]] 2.3 volts
+	- [[C.]] -0.23 volts
+	- [[D.]] -2.3 volts
+- [[E7G10]] (C)
+What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 1
+	- [[B.]] 0.03
+	- [[C.]] 38
+	- [[D.]] 76
+- [[E7G11]] (B)
+What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms? #card
+	- [[A.]] 28
+	- [[B.]] 14
+	- [[C.]] 7
+	- [[D.]] 0.07
+- [[E7G12]] (A)
+What is an operational amplifier? #card
+	- [[A.]] A high-gain, direct-coupled differential amplifier with very high input impedance and very low output impedance
+	- [[B.]] A digital audio amplifier whose characteristics are determined by components external to the amplifier
+	- [[C.]] An amplifier used to increase the average output of frequency modulated amateur signals to the legal limit
+	- [[D.]] A RF amplifier used in the UHF and microwave regions

pages/E7H.md

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+E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers; stabilizing thermal drift; microphonics; high-accuracy oscillators
+
+- [[E7H01]] (D)
+What are three common oscillator circuits? #card
+	- [[A.]] Taft, Pierce, and negative feedback
+	- [[B.]] Pierce, Fenner, and Beane
+	- [[C.]] Taft, Hartley, and Pierce
+	- [[D.]] Colpitts, Hartley, and Pierce
+- [[E7H02]] (C)
+What is a microphonic? #card
+	- [[A.]] An IC used for amplifying microphone signals
+	- [[B.]] Distortion caused by RF pickup on the microphone cable
+	- [[C.]] Changes in oscillator frequency caused by mechanical vibration
+	- [[D.]] Excess loading of the microphone by an oscillator
+- [[E7H03]] (C)
+What is a phase-locked loop? #card
+	- [[A.]] An electronic servo loop consisting of a ratio detector, reactance modulator, and voltage-controlled oscillator
+	- [[B.]] An electronic circuit also known as a monostable multivibrator
+	- [[C.]] An electronic servo loop consisting of a phase detector, a low-pass filter, a voltage-controlled oscillator, and a stable reference oscillator
+	- [[D.]] An electronic circuit consisting of a precision push-pull amplifier with a differential phase input
+- [[E7H04]] (C)
+How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator? #card
+	- [[A.]] Through a tapped coil
+	- [[B.]] Through link coupling
+	- [[C.]] Through a capacitive divider
+	- [[D.]] Through a neutralizing capacitor
+- [[E7H05]] (D)
+How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator? #card
+	- [[A.]] Through a tapped coil
+	- [[B.]] Through link coupling
+	- [[C.]] Through a neutralizing capacitor
+	- [[D.]] Through a quartz crystal
+- [[E7H06]] (B)
+Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop? #card
+	- [[A.]] Wide-band AF and RF power amplification
+	- [[B.]] Frequency synthesis and FM demodulation
+	- [[C.]] Photovoltaic conversion and optical coupling
+	- [[D.]] Comparison of two digital input signals and digital pulse counting
+- [[E7H07]] (D)
+How can an oscillator’s microphonic responses be reduced? #card
+	- [[A.]] Use NP0 capacitors
+	- [[B.]] Reduce noise on the oscillator’s power supply
+	- [[C.]] Increase the gain
+	- [[D.]] Mechanically isolate the oscillator circuitry from its enclosure
+- [[E7H08]] (A)
+Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators? #card
+	- [[A.]] NP0 capacitors
+	- [[B.]] Toroidal inductors
+	- [[C.]] Wirewound resistors
+	- [[D.]] Non-inductive resistors
+- [[E7H09]] (A)
+What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter? #card
+	- [[A.]] A direct digital synthesizer
+	- [[B.]] A hybrid synthesizer
+	- [[C.]] A phase-locked loop synthesizer
+	- [[D.]] A direct conversion synthesizer
+- [[E7H10]] (B)
+What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? #card
+	- [[A.]] The phase relationship between a reference oscillator and the output waveform
+	- [[B.]] Amplitude values that represent the desired waveform
+	- [[C.]] The phase relationship between a voltage-controlled oscillator and the output waveform
+	- [[D.]] Frequently used receiver and transmitter frequencies
+- [[E7H11]] (C)
+What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers? #card
+	- [[A.]] Broadband noise
+	- [[B.]] Digital conversion noise
+	- [[C.]] Spurious signals at discrete frequencies
+	- [[D.]] Harmonics of the local oscillator
+- [[E7H12]] (B)
+Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer? #card
+	- [[A.]] Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
+	- [[B.]] Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
+	- [[C.]] Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
+	- [[D.]] Bias the crystal at a specified current
+- [[E7H13]] (D)
+Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception? #card
+	- [[A.]] Use a GPS signal reference
+	- [[B.]] Use a rubidium stabilized reference oscillator
+	- [[C.]] Use a temperature-controlled high Q dielectric resonator
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct

pages/E8A.md

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+E8A Fourier analysis; RMS measurements; average RF power and peak envelope power (PEP); analog/digital conversion
+
+- [[E8A01]] (A)
+What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics? #card
+	- [[A.]] Fourier analysis
+	- [[B.]] Vector analysis
+	- [[C.]] Numerical analysis
+	- [[D.]] Differential analysis
+- [[E8A02]] (A)
+Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion? #card
+	- [[A.]] Successive approximation
+	- [[B.]] Harmonic regeneration
+	- [[C.]] Level shifting
+	- [[D.]] Phase reversal
+- [[E8A03]] (B)
+Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain? #card
+	- [[A.]] Power at intervals of phase
+	- [[B.]] Amplitude at different times
+	- [[C.]] Frequency at different times
+	- [[D.]] Discrete impulses in time order
+- [[E8A04]] (B)
+What is “dither” with respect to analog-to-digital converters? #card
+	- [[A.]] An abnormal condition where the converter cannot settle on a value to represent the signal
+	- [[B.]] A small amount of noise added to the input signal to reduce quantization noise
+	- [[C.]] An error caused by irregular quantization step size
+	- [[D.]] A method of decimation by randomly skipping samples
+- [[E8A05]] (D)
+What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter? #card
+	- [[A.]] An inverse Fourier transform can be used
+	- [[B.]] The signal’s RMS noise factor is also calculated
+	- [[C.]] The calculated RMS value can be converted directly into phasor form
+	- [[D.]] RMS is measured for both sinusoidal and non-sinusoidal signals
+- [[E8A06]] (A)
+What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] 2.5 to 1
+	- [[B.]] 25 to 1
+	- [[C.]] 1 to 1
+	- [[D.]] 13 to 1
+- [[E8A07]] (B)
+What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] The frequency of the modulating signal
+	- [[B.]] Speech characteristics
+	- [[C.]] The degree of carrier suppression 
+	- [[D.]] Amplifier gain
+- [[E8A08]] (C)
+Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio? #card
+	- [[A.]] Very low power consumption decreases frequency drift
+	- [[B.]] Immunity to out-of-sequence coding reduces spurious responses
+	- [[C.]] Very high speed allows digitizing high frequencies
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E8A09]] (D)
+How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution? #card
+	- [[A.]] 8
+	- [[B.]] 8 multiplied by the gain of the input amplifier
+	- [[C.]] 256 divided by the gain of the input amplifier
+	- [[D.]] 256
+- [[E8A10]] (C)
+What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used at the output of a digital-to-analog converter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Lower the input bandwidth to increase the effective resolution
+	- [[B.]] Improve accuracy by removing out-of-sequence codes from the input
+	- [[C.]] Remove spurious sampling artifacts from the output signal
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E8A11]] (A)
+Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter? #card
+	- [[A.]] Total harmonic distortion
+	- [[B.]] Peak envelope power
+	- [[C.]] Reciprocal mixing
+	- [[D.]] Power factor

pages/E8B.md

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+E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; frequency- and time-division multiplexing; orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)
+
+- [[E8B01]] (A)
+What is the modulation index of an FM signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of frequency deviation to modulating signal frequency
+	- [[B.]] The ratio of modulating signal amplitude to frequency deviation
+	- [[C.]] The modulating signal frequency divided by the bandwidth of the transmitted signal
+	- [[D.]] The bandwidth of the transmitted signal divided by the modulating signal frequency
+- [[E8B02]] (D)
+How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] It increases as the RF carrier frequency increases
+	- [[B.]] It decreases as the RF carrier frequency increases
+	- [[C.]] It varies with the square root of the RF carrier frequency
+	- [[D.]] It does not depend on the RF carrier frequency
+- [[E8B03]] (A)
+What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 3
+	- [[B.]] 0.3
+	- [[C.]] 6
+	- [[D.]] 0.6
+- [[E8B04]] (B)
+What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency  is 2 kHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 0.3
+	- [[B.]] 3
+	- [[C.]] 0.6
+	- [[D.]] 6
+- [[E8B05]] (D)
+What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 6
+	- [[B.]] 0.167
+	- [[C.]] 0.6
+	- [[D.]] 1.67
+- [[E8B06]] (A)
+What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 2.14
+	- [[B.]] 0.214
+	- [[C.]] 0.47
+	- [[D.]] 47
+- [[E8B07]] (A)
+Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication? #card
+	- [[A.]] Digital modes
+	- [[B.]] Extremely low-power contacts
+	- [[C.]] EME
+	- [[D.]] OFDM signals are not allowed on amateur bands
+- [[E8B08]] (D)
+What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)? #card
+	- [[A.]] A frequency modulation technique that uses non-harmonically related frequencies
+	- [[B.]] A bandwidth compression technique using Fourier transforms
+	- [[C.]] A digital mode for narrow-band, slow-speed transmissions
+	- [[D.]] A digital modulation technique using subcarriers at frequencies chosen to avoid intersymbol interference
+- [[E8B09]] (B)
+What is deviation ratio? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
+	- [[B.]] The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating frequency
+	- [[C.]] The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
+	- [[D.]] The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating frequency
+- [[E8B10]] (B)
+What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)? #card
+	- [[A.]] The transmitted signal jumps from band to band at a predetermined rate
+	- [[B.]] Dividing the transmitted signal into separate frequency bands that each carry a different data stream
+	- [[C.]] The transmitted signal is divided into packets of information
+	- [[D.]] Two or more information streams are merged into a digital combiner, which then pulse position modulates the transmitter
+- [[E8B11]] (B)
+What is digital time division multiplexing? #card
+	- [[A.]] Two or more data streams are assigned to discrete sub-carriers on an FM transmitter
+	- [[B.]] Two or more signals are arranged to share discrete time slots of a data transmission
+	- [[C.]] Two or more data streams share the same channel by transmitting time of transmission as the sub-carrier
+	- [[D.]] Two or more signals are quadrature modulated to increase bandwidth efficiency

pages/E8C.md

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+E8C Digital signals: digital communication modes; information rate vs. bandwidth; error correction; constellation diagrams
+
+- [[E8C01]] (B)
+What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM? #card
+	- [[A.]] A technique for digital data compression used in digital television which removes redundancy in the data by comparing bit amplitudes
+	- [[B.]] Transmission of data by modulating the amplitude of two carriers of the same frequency but 90 degrees out of phase
+	- [[C.]] A method of performing single sideband modulation by shifting the phase of the carrier and modulation components of the signal
+	- [[D.]] A technique for analog modulation of television video signals using phase modulation and compression
+- [[E8C02]] (C)
+What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission? #card
+	- [[A.]] The number of control characters in a message packet
+	- [[B.]] The maximum rate at which the forward error correction code can make corrections
+	- [[C.]] The rate at which the waveform changes to convey information
+	- [[D.]] The number of characters carried per second by the station-to-station link 
+- [[E8C03]] (A)
+Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] To minimize bandwidth
+	- [[B.]] To simplify modulation
+	- [[C.]] To improve carrier suppression
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E8C04]] (C)
+What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] Zero-sum character encoding
+	- [[B.]] Reed-Solomon character encoding
+	- [[C.]] Use of sinusoidal data pulses
+	- [[D.]] Use of linear data pulses
+- [[E8C05]] (C)
+What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission? #card
+	- [[A.]] 13 Hz
+	- [[B.]] 26 Hz
+	- [[C.]] 52 Hz
+	- [[D.]] 104 Hz
+- [[E8C06]] (B)
+What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] 10 Hz
+	- [[B.]] 50 Hz
+	- [[C.]] 600 Hz
+	- [[D.]] 2.4 kHz
+- [[E8C07]] (A)
+What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission? #card
+	- [[A.]] 15.36 kHz
+	- [[B.]] 9.6 kHz
+	- [[C.]] 4.8 kHz
+	- [[D.]] 5.76 kHz
+- [[E8C08]] (D)
+How does ARQ accomplish error correction? #card
+	- [[A.]] Special binary codes provide automatic correction
+	- [[B.]] Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction
+	- [[C.]] If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted
+	- [[D.]] If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested
+- [[E8C09]] (D)
+Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values? #card
+	- [[A.]] Binary Coded Decimal Code
+	- [[B.]] Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
+	- [[C.]] Extended ASCII
+	- [[D.]] Gray code
+- [[E8C10]] (C)
+How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is impossible
+	- [[B.]] Increasing analog-to-digital conversion resolution
+	- [[C.]] Using a more efficient digital code
+	- [[D.]] Using forward error correction
+- [[E8C11]] (A)
+What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud? #card
+	- [[A.]] They are the same
+	- [[B.]] Baud is twice the symbol rate
+	- [[C.]] Baud rate is half the symbol rate
+	- [[D.]] The relationship depends on the specific code used
+- [[E8C12]] (C)
+What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] IF bandwidth and Q
+	- [[B.]] Modulation index and output power
+	- [[C.]] Keying speed and shape factor (rise and fall time)
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E8C13]] (B)
+What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] How many carriers may be present at the same time
+	- [[B.]] The possible phase and amplitude states for each symbol
+	- [[C.]] Frequency response of the signal stream
+	- [[D.]] The number of bits used for error correction in the protocol
+- [[E8C14]] (C)
+What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network? #card
+	- [[A.]] Email
+	- [[B.]] Trust server
+	- [[C.]] Internet Protocol (IP)
+	- [[D.]] Talk group
+- [[E8C15]] (C)
+What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network? #card
+	- [[A.]] Forward error correction and Viterbi codes
+	- [[B.]] Acting as store-and-forward digipeaters
+	- [[C.]] Discovery and link establishment protocols
+	- [[D.]] Custom code plugs for the local trunking systems

pages/E8D.md

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+E8D Keying defects and overmodulation of digital signals; digital codes; spread spectrum
+
+- [[E8D01]] (A)
+Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference? #card
+	- [[A.]] Signals not using the spread spectrum algorithm are suppressed in the receiver
+	- [[B.]] The high power used by a spread spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered
+	- [[C.]] Built-in error correction codes minimize interference
+	- [[D.]] If the receiver detects interference, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
+- [[E8D02]] (B)
+What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier? #card
+	- [[A.]] Frequency hopping
+	- [[B.]] Direct sequence
+	- [[C.]] Binary phase-shift keying
+	- [[D.]] Phase compandored spread spectrum
+- [[E8D03]] (D)
+Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping? #card
+	- [[A.]] If interference is detected by the receiver, it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies
+	- [[B.]] RF signals are clipped to generate a wide band of harmonics which provides redundancy to correct errors
+	- [[C.]] A binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a pseudorandom sequence
+	- [[D.]] Rapidly varying the frequency of a transmitted signal according to a pseudorandom sequence
+- [[E8D04]] (C)
+What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] More difficult to copy
+	- [[B.]] The generation of RF harmonics
+	- [[C.]] The generation of key clicks
+	- [[D.]] More difficult to tune
+- [[E8D05]] (A)
+What is the most common method of reducing key clicks? #card
+	- [[A.]] Increase keying waveform rise and fall times
+	- [[B.]] Insert low-pass filters at the transmitter output
+	- [[C.]] Reduce keying waveform rise and fall times
+	- [[D.]] Insert high-pass filters at the transmitter output
+- [[E8D06]] (D)
+What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters? #card
+	- [[A.]] Faster transmission rate
+	- [[B.]] Signal-to-noise ratio is improved
+	- [[C.]] A larger character set is available
+	- [[D.]] Some types of errors can be detected
+- [[E8D07]] (D)
+What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals? #card
+	- [[A.]] Excessive numbers of retries
+	- [[B.]] Excessive frequency deviation
+	- [[C.]] Bit errors in the modem
+	- [[D.]] Excessive transmit audio levels
+- [[E8D08]] (D)
+What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels? #card
+	- [[A.]] Signal-to-noise ratio
+	- [[B.]] Baud error rate
+	- [[C.]] Repeat Request Rate (RRR)
+	- [[D.]] Intermodulation Distortion (IMD)
+- [[E8D09]] (D)
+What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal? #card
+	- [[A.]] +5 dB
+	- [[B.]] +10 dB
+	- [[C.]] +15 dB
+	- [[D.]] -30 dB
+- [[E8D10]] (B)
+What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII? #card
+	- [[A.]] Baudot uses 4 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 1 character as a letters/figures shift code, ASCII has no letters/figures code
+	- [[B.]] Baudot uses 5 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot uses 2 characters as letters/figures shift codes, ASCII has no letters/figures shift code
+	- [[C.]] Baudot uses 6 data bits per character, ASCII uses 7 or 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
+	- [[D.]] Baudot uses 7 data bits per character, ASCII uses 8; Baudot has no letters/figures shift code, ASCII uses 2 letters/figures shift codes
+- [[E8D11]] (C)
+What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications? #card
+	- [[A.]] It includes built-in error correction features
+	- [[B.]] It contains fewer information bits per character than any other code
+	- [[C.]] It is possible to transmit both uppercase and lowercase text
+	- [[D.]] It uses one character as a shift code to send numeric and special characters

pages/E9A.md

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+E9A Basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency; effective radiated power (ERP) and effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)
+
+- [[E9A01]] (C)
+What is an isotropic radiator? #card
+	- [[A.]] A calibrated, unidirectional antenna used to make precise antenna gain measurements
+	- [[B.]] An omnidirectional, horizontally polarized, precisely calibrated antenna used to make field measurements of antenna gain
+	- [[C.]] A hypothetical, lossless antenna having equal radiation intensity in all directions used as a reference for antenna gain
+	- [[D.]] A spacecraft antenna used to direct signals toward Earth
+- [[E9A02]] (D)
+What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain? #card
+	- [[A.]] 469 watts
+	- [[B.]] 78.7 watts
+	- [[C.]] 420 watts
+	- [[D.]] 286 watts
+- [[E9A03]] (C)
+What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses? #card
+	- [[A.]] Power factor
+	- [[B.]] Half-power bandwidth
+	- [[C.]] Effective radiated power
+	- [[D.]] Apparent power
+- [[E9A04]] (B)
+Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] Transmission line length
+	- [[B.]] Antenna height
+	- [[C.]] The settings of an antenna tuner at the transmitter
+	- [[D.]] The input power level
+- [[E9A05]] (D)
+What does the term “ground gain” mean? #card
+	- [[A.]] The change in signal strength caused by grounding the antenna
+	- [[B.]] The gain of the antenna with respect to a dipole at ground level
+	- [[C.]] To force net gain to 0 dB by grounding part of the antenna
+	- [[D.]] An increase in signal strength from ground reflections in the environment of the antenna
+- [[E9A06]] (A)
+What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain? #card
+	- [[A.]] 317 watts
+	- [[B.]] 2,000 watts
+	- [[C.]] 126 watts
+	- [[D.]] 300 watts
+- [[E9A07]] (B)
+What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain? #card
+	- [[A.]] 159 watts
+	- [[B.]] 252 watts
+	- [[C.]] 632 watts
+	- [[D.]] 63.2 watts
+- [[E9A08]] (A)
+Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone? #card
+	- [[A.]] 5.8 GHz
+	- [[B.]] 3.4 GHz
+	- [[C.]] 2.4 GHz
+	- [[D.]] 900 MHz
+- [[E9A09]] (B)
+What is antenna efficiency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Radiation resistance divided by transmission resistance
+	- [[B.]] Radiation resistance divided by total resistance
+	- [[C.]] Total resistance divided by radiation resistance
+	- [[D.]] Effective radiated power divided by transmitter output
+- [[E9A10]] (A)
+Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] Installing a ground radial system
+	- [[B.]] Isolating the coax shield from ground
+	- [[C.]] Shortening the radiating element
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9A11]] (C)
+Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF? #card
+	- [[A.]] The standing wave ratio
+	- [[B.]] Distance from the transmitter
+	- [[C.]] Soil conductivity
+	- [[D.]] Take-off angle
+- [[E9A12]] (A)
+How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator? #card
+	- [[A.]] 3.85 dB
+	- [[B.]] 6.0 dB
+	- [[C.]] 8.15 dB
+	- [[D.]] 2.79 dB

pages/E9B.md

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+E9B Antenna patterns and designs: azimuth and elevation patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna modeling
+
+- [[E9B01]] (B)
+What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1? #card
+	- [[A.]] 75 degrees
+	- [[B.]] 50 degrees
+	- [[C.]] 25 degrees
+	- [[D.]] 30 degrees
+- [[E9B02]] (D)
+What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1? #card
+	- [[A.]] 36 dB
+	- [[B.]] 14 dB
+	- [[C.]] 24 dB
+	- [[D.]] 18 dB
+- [[E9B03]] (D)
+What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1? #card
+	- [[A.]] 12 dB
+	- [[B.]] 24 dB
+	- [[C.]] 18 dB
+	- [[D.]] 14 dB
+- [[E9B04]] (B)
+What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9‑2? #card
+	- [[A.]] 15 dB
+	- [[B.]] 28 dB
+	- [[C.]] 3 dB
+	- [[D.]] 38 dB
+- [[E9B05]] (A)
+What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2? #card
+	- [[A.]] Elevation
+	- [[B.]] Azimuth
+	- [[C.]] Near field
+	- [[D.]] Polarization
+- [[E9B06]] (C)
+What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2? #card
+	- [[A.]] 45 degrees
+	- [[B.]] 75 degrees
+	- [[C.]] 7.5 degrees
+	- [[D.]] 25 degrees
+- [[E9B07]] (C)
+What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power? #card
+	- [[A.]] The power radiated from the directional antenna is increased by the gain of the antenna
+	- [[B.]] The power radiated from the directional antenna is stronger by its front-to-back ratio
+	- [[C.]] They are the same
+	- [[D.]] The power radiated from the isotropic radiator is 2.15 dB greater than that from the directional antenna
+- [[E9B08]] (D)
+What is the far field of an antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] The region of the ionosphere where radiated power is not refracted
+	- [[B.]] The region where radiated power dissipates over a specified time period
+	- [[C.]] The region where radiated field strengths are constant
+	- [[D.]] The region where the shape of the radiation pattern no longer varies with distance
+- [[E9B09]] (B)
+What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas? #card
+	- [[A.]] Graphical analysis
+	- [[B.]] Method of Moments
+	- [[C.]] Mutual impedance analysis
+	- [[D.]] Calculus differentiation with respect to physical properties
+- [[E9B10]] (A)
+What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis? #card
+	- [[A.]] A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a uniform value of current
+	- [[B.]] A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave current generator
+	- [[C.]] A wire is modeled as a single sine-wave voltage source
+	- [[D.]] A wire is modeled as a series of segments, each having a distinct value of voltage across it
+- [[E9B11]] (C)
+What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength? #card
+	- [[A.]] Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
+	- [[B.]] The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
+	- [[C.]] The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
+	- [[D.]] The antenna will become mechanically unstable

pages/E9C.md

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+E9C Practical wire antennas; folded dipoles; phased arrays; effects of ground near antennas
+
+- [[E9C01]] (D)
+What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase? #card
+	- [[A.]] Cardioid
+	- [[B.]] Omni-directional
+	- [[C.]] A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
+	- [[D.]] A figure-eight oriented along the axis of the array
+- [[E9C02]] (A)
+What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase? #card
+	- [[A.]] Cardioid
+	- [[B.]] A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
+	- [[C.]] A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
+	- [[D.]] Omni-directional
+- [[E9C03]] (C)
+What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase? #card
+	- [[A.]] Omni-directional
+	- [[B.]] Cardioid
+	- [[C.]] A figure-eight broadside to the axis of the array
+	- [[D.]] A figure-eight end-fire along the axis of the array
+- [[E9C04]] (B)
+What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased? #card
+	- [[A.]] Fewer lobes form with the major lobes increasing closer to broadside to the wire
+	- [[B.]] Additional lobes form with major lobes increasingly aligned with the axis of the antenna
+	- [[C.]] The elevation angle increases, and the front-to-rear ratio decreases
+	- [[D.]] The elevation angle increases, while the front-to-rear ratio is unaffected
+- [[E9C05]] (A)
+What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint? #card
+	- [[A.]] To create a similar feed point impedance on multiple bands
+	- [[B.]] To suppress off-center lobes at higher frequencies
+	- [[C.]] To resonate the antenna across a wider range of frequencies
+	- [[D.]] To reduce common-mode current coupling on the feed line shield
+- [[E9C06]] (B)
+What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] It reflects the standing waves on the antenna elements back to the transmitter
+	- [[B.]] It changes the radiation pattern from bidirectional to unidirectional
+	- [[C.]] It changes the radiation pattern from horizontal to vertical polarization
+	- [[D.]] It decreases the ground loss
+- [[E9C07]] (A)
+What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] 300 ohms
+	- [[B.]] 72 ohms
+	- [[C.]] 50 ohms
+	- [[D.]] 450 ohms
+- [[E9C08]] (C)
+What is a folded dipole antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] A dipole one-quarter wavelength long
+	- [[B.]] A center-fed dipole with the ends folded down 90 degrees at the midpoint of each side
+	- [[C.]] A half-wave dipole with an additional parallel wire connecting its two ends
+	- [[D.]] A dipole configured to provide forward gain
+- [[E9C09]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] A wire antenna center-fed through a specific length of open-wire line connected to a balun and coaxial feed line
+	- [[B.]] A multi-band trap antenna
+	- [[C.]] A phased array antenna consisting of multiple loops
+	- [[D.]] A wide band dipole using shorted coaxial cable for the radiating elements and fed with a 4:1 balun
+- [[E9C10]] (B)
+Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] A horizontal array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
+	- [[B.]] An end-fed half-wavelength dipole
+	- [[C.]] An omni-directional antenna commonly used for satellite communications
+	- [[D.]] A vertical array capable of quickly changing the direction of maximum radiation by changing phasing lines
+- [[E9C11]] (D)
+How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil? #card
+	- [[A.]] Radiation at low angles decreases
+	- [[B.]] Additional lobes appear at higher elevation angles
+	- [[C.]] Separate elevation lobes will combine into a single lobe
+	- [[D.]] Radiation at low angles increases
+- [[E9C12]] (C)
+Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] An end-fed full-wave dipole antenna
+	- [[B.]] A center-fed 1.5-wavelength dipole antenna
+	- [[C.]] A center-fed 1.25-wavelength dipole antenna
+	- [[D.]] An end-fed 2-wavelength dipole antenna
+- [[E9C13]] (B)
+How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground? #card
+	- [[A.]] The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe increases
+	- [[B.]] The takeoff angle of the lowest elevation lobe decreases
+	- [[C.]] The horizontal beamwidth increases
+	- [[D.]] The horizontal beamwidth decreases
+- [[E9C14]] (B)
+How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground? #card
+	- [[A.]] The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction
+	- [[B.]] The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction
+	- [[C.]] The horizontal beamwidth decreases in the downhill direction
+	- [[D.]] The horizontal beamwidth increases in the uphill direction

pages/E9D.md

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+E9D Yagi antennas; parabolic reflectors; feed point impedance and loading of electrically short antennas; antenna Q; RF grounding
+
+- [[E9D01]] (D)
+How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled? #card
+	- [[A.]] 2 dB
+	- [[B.]] 3 dB
+	- [[C.]] 4 dB
+	- [[D.]] 6 dB
+- [[E9D02]] (C)
+How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization? #card
+	- [[A.]] Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed 90 degrees out of phase
+	- [[B.]] Stack two Yagis to form an array with the respective elements in parallel planes fed in phase
+	- [[C.]] Arrange two Yagis on the same axis and perpendicular to each other with the driven elements at the same point on the boom and fed 90 degrees out of phase
+	- [[D.]] Arrange two Yagis collinear to each other with the driven elements fed 180 degrees out of phase
+- [[E9D03]] (A)
+What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip? #card
+	- [[A.]] Near the center of the vertical radiator
+	- [[B.]] As low as possible on the vertical radiator
+	- [[C.]] At a voltage maximum
+	- [[D.]] At a voltage null
+- [[E9D04]] (C)
+Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance? #card
+	- [[A.]] To swamp out harmonics
+	- [[B.]] To lower the radiation angle
+	- [[C.]] To maximize efficiency
+	- [[D.]] To minimize the Q
+- [[E9D05]] (D)
+Approximately how long is a Yagi’s driven element? #card
+	- [[A.]] 234 divided by frequency in MHz
+	- [[B.]] 1005 divided by frequency in MHz
+	- [[C.]] 1/4 wavelength
+	- [[D.]] 1/2 wavelength
+- [[E9D06]] (B)
+What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] It is increased
+	- [[B.]] It is decreased
+	- [[C.]] It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at the feed point
+	- [[D.]] It is unchanged if the loading coil is located at a voltage maximum point 
+- [[E9D07]] (D)
+What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] Lower Q
+	- [[B.]] Greater structural strength
+	- [[C.]] Higher losses
+	- [[D.]] Improved radiation efficiency
+- [[E9D08]] (B)
+What happens as the Q of an antenna increases? #card
+	- [[A.]] SWR bandwidth increases
+	- [[B.]] SWR bandwidth decreases
+	- [[C.]] Gain is reduced
+	- [[D.]] More common-mode current is present on the feed line
+- [[E9D09]] (D)
+What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] To increase the SWR bandwidth by increasing net reactance
+	- [[B.]] To lower the losses
+	- [[C.]] To lower the Q
+	- [[D.]] To resonate the antenna by cancelling the capacitive reactance
+- [[E9D10]] (B)
+How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Radiation resistance increases
+	- [[B.]] Radiation resistance decreases
+	- [[C.]] Radiation resistance becomes imaginary
+	- [[D.]] Radiation resistance does not depend on frequency
+- [[E9D11]] (D)
+Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director? #card
+	- [[A.]] Lower SWR
+	- [[B.]] Higher receiving directivity factor
+	- [[C.]] Greater front-to-side
+	- [[D.]] Higher gain
+- [[E9D12]] (C)
+What is the purpose of making a Yagi’s parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance? #card
+	- [[A.]] Wind torque cancellation
+	- [[B.]] Mechanical balance
+	- [[C.]] Control of phase shift
+	- [[D.]] Minimize losses

pages/E9E.md

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+E9E Impedance matching: matching antennas to feed lines; phasing lines; power dividers
+
+- [[E9E01]] (B)
+Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom? #card
+	- [[A.]] Gamma 
+	- [[B.]] Beta or hairpin
+	- [[C.]] Shunt-fed
+	- [[D.]] T-match
+- [[E9E02]] (A)
+What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side? #card
+	- [[A.]] Gamma match
+	- [[B.]] Delta match
+	- [[C.]] T-match
+	- [[D.]] Stub match
+- [[E9E03]] (D)
+What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point? #card
+	- [[A.]] Gamma match
+	- [[B.]] Delta match
+	- [[C.]] T-match
+	- [[D.]] Stub match
+- [[E9E04]] (B)
+What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match? #card
+	- [[A.]] To provide DC isolation between the feed line and the antenna
+	- [[B.]] To cancel unwanted inductive reactance
+	- [[C.]] To provide a rejection notch that prevents the radiation of harmonics
+	- [[D.]] To transform the antenna impedance to a higher value
+- [[E9E05]] (A)
+What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system? #card
+	- [[A.]] Capacitive (driven element electrically shorter than 1/2 wavelength)
+	- [[B.]] Inductive (driven element electrically longer than 1/2 wavelength)
+	- [[C.]] Purely resistive
+	- [[D.]] Purely reactive
+- [[E9E06]] (C)
+Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line? #card
+	- [[A.]] 50 ohms
+	- [[B.]] 62 ohms
+	- [[C.]] 75 ohms
+	- [[D.]] 90 ohms
+- [[E9E07]] (B)
+What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line? #card
+	- [[A.]] Characteristic impedance
+	- [[B.]] Reflection coefficient
+	- [[C.]] Velocity factor
+	- [[D.]] Dielectric constant
+- [[E9E08]] (C)
+What is a use for a Wilkinson divider? #card
+	- [[A.]] To divide the operating frequency of a transmitter signal so it can be used on a lower frequency band
+	- [[B.]] To feed high-impedance antennas from a low-impedance source
+	- [[C.]] To divide power equally between two 50-ohm loads while maintaining 50-ohm input impedance
+	- [[D.]] To divide the frequency of the input to a counter to increase its frequency range
+- [[E9E09]] (C)
+Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base? #card
+	- [[A.]] Double-bazooka match
+	- [[B.]] Beta or hairpin match
+	- [[C.]] Gamma match
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9E10]]  Question Deleted (section not renumbered)
+~~
+
+- [[E9E11]] (A)
+What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines? #card
+	- [[A.]] To control the antenna’s radiation pattern
+	- [[B.]] To prevent harmonic radiation from the transmitter
+	- [[C.]] To allow single-band antennas to operate on other bands
+	- [[D.]] To create a low-angle radiation pattern

pages/E9F.md

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+E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; coax versus open wire; velocity factor; electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; microstrip
+
+- [[E9F01]] (D)
+What is the velocity factor of a transmission line? #card
+	- [[A.]] The ratio of its characteristic impedance to its termination impedance
+	- [[B.]] The ratio of its termination impedance to its characteristic impedance
+	- [[C.]] The velocity of a wave in the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in a vacuum
+	- [[D.]] The velocity of a wave in the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a vacuum
+- [[E9F02]] (C)
+Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line? #card
+	- [[A.]] The characteristic impedance
+	- [[B.]] The transmission line length
+	- [[C.]] The insulating dielectric material
+	- [[D.]] The center conductor resistivity
+- [[E9F03]] (D)
+Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length? #card
+	- [[A.]] Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable
+	- [[B.]] Skin effect is more pronounced in the coaxial cable
+	- [[C.]] Electromagnetic waves move faster in coaxial cable than in air
+	- [[D.]] Electromagnetic waves move more slowly in a coaxial cable than in air
+- [[E9F04]] (B)
+What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end? #card
+	- [[A.]] Very high impedance
+	- [[B.]] Very low impedance
+	- [[C.]] The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- [[D.]] The same as the output impedance of the RF generator
+- [[E9F05]] (D)
+What is microstrip? #card
+	- [[A.]] Special shielding material designed for microwave frequencies
+	- [[B.]] Miniature coax used for low power applications
+	- [[C.]] Short lengths of coax mounted on printed circuit boards to minimize time delay between microwave circuits
+	- [[D.]] Precision printed circuit conductors above a ground plane that provide constant impedance interconnects at microwave frequencies
+- [[E9F06]] (C)
+What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz? #card
+	- [[A.]] 7.0 meters
+	- [[B.]] 8.5 meters
+	- [[C.]] 10.6 meters
+	- [[D.]] 13.3 meters
+- [[E9F07]] (A)
+How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric? #card
+	- [[A.]] Lower loss
+	- [[B.]] Higher SWR
+	- [[C.]] Smaller reflection coefficient
+	- [[D.]] Lower velocity factor
+- [[E9F08]] (D)
+Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same? #card
+	- [[A.]] Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower safe maximum operating voltage
+	- [[B.]] Foam dielectric coaxial cable has lower loss per unit of length
+	- [[C.]] Foam dielectric coaxial cable has higher velocity factor
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9F09]] (A)
+What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end? #card
+	- [[A.]] Very high impedance
+	- [[B.]] Very low impedance
+	- [[C.]] The same as the characteristic impedance of the transmission line
+	- [[D.]] The same as the generator output impedance
+- [[E9F10]] (C)
+What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end? #card
+	- [[A.]] A capacitive reactance
+	- [[B.]] The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- [[C.]] An inductive reactance
+	- [[D.]] Zero
+- [[E9F11]] (C)
+What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? #card
+	- [[A.]] The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- [[B.]] An inductive reactance
+	- [[C.]] A capacitive reactance
+	- [[D.]] Infinite
+- [[E9F12]] (D)
+What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end? #card
+	- [[A.]] The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- [[B.]] The same as the input impedance to the generator
+	- [[C.]] Very high impedance
+	- [[D.]] Very low impedance

pages/E9G.md

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+E9G The Smith chart
+
+- [[E9G01]] (A)
+Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart? #card
+	- [[A.]] Impedance along transmission lines
+	- [[B.]] Radiation resistance
+	- [[C.]] Antenna radiation pattern
+	- [[D.]] Radio propagation
+- [[E9G02]] (B)
+What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? #card
+	- [[A.]] Voltage circles and current arcs
+	- [[B.]] Resistance circles and reactance arcs
+	- [[C.]] Voltage chords and current chords
+	- [[D.]] Resistance lines and reactance chords
+- [[E9G03]] (C)
+Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart? #card
+	- [[A.]] Beam headings and radiation patterns
+	- [[B.]] Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings
+	- [[C.]] Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines
+	- [[D.]] Point-to-point propagation reliability as a function of frequency
+- [[E9G04]] (C)
+What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart? #card
+	- [[A.]] Inductance and capacitance
+	- [[B.]] Reactance and voltage
+	- [[C.]] Resistance and reactance
+	- [[D.]] Voltage and impedance
+- [[E9G05]] (A)
+Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart? #card
+	- [[A.]] Determine the length and position of an impedance matching stub
+	- [[B.]] Determine the impedance of a transmission line, given the physical dimensions
+	- [[C.]] Determine the gain of an antenna given the physical and electrical parameters
+	- [[D.]] Determine the loss/100 feet of a transmission line, given the velocity factor and conductor materials
+- [[E9G06]] (B)
+On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate? #card
+	- [[A.]] Prime axis
+	- [[B.]] Reactance axis
+	- [[C.]] Impedance axis
+	- [[D.]] Polar axis
+- [[E9G07]] (D)
+On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown? #card
+	- [[A.]] The reactance axis
+	- [[B.]] The current axis
+	- [[C.]] The voltage axis
+	- [[D.]] The resistance axis
+- [[E9G08]] (C)
+How is a Smith chart normalized? #card
+	- [[A.]] Reassign the reactance axis with resistance values
+	- [[B.]] Reassign the resistance axis with reactance values
+	- [[C.]] Reassign the prime center’s impedance value
+	- [[D.]] Reassign the prime center to the reactance axis
+- [[E9G09]] (A)
+What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks? #card
+	- [[A.]] Constant-SWR circles
+	- [[B.]] Transmission line length circles
+	- [[C.]] Coaxial-length circles
+	- [[D.]] Radiation-pattern circles
+- [[E9G10]] (D)
+What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent? #card
+	- [[A.]] Frequency
+	- [[B.]] SWR
+	- [[C.]] Points with constant resistance
+	- [[D.]] Points with constant reactance
+- [[E9G11]] (B)
+In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? #card
+	- [[A.]] In fractions of transmission line electrical frequency
+	- [[B.]] In fractions of transmission line electrical wavelength
+	- [[C.]] In fractions of antenna electrical wavelength
+	- [[D.]] In fractions of antenna electrical frequency

pages/E9H.md

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+E9H Receiving antennas: radio direction finding (RDF) techniques; Beverage antennas; single- and multiple-turn loops
+
+- [[E9H01]] (D)
+When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency? #card
+	- [[A.]] Its overall length must not exceed 1/4 wavelength
+	- [[B.]] It must be mounted more than 1 wavelength above ground
+	- [[C.]] It should be configured as a four-sided loop
+	- [[D.]] It should be at least one wavelength long
+- [[E9H02]] (A)
+Which is generally true for 160- and 80-meter receiving antennas? #card
+	- [[A.]] Atmospheric noise is so high that directivity is much more important than losses
+	- [[B.]] They must be erected at least 1/2 wavelength above the ground to attain good directivity
+	- [[C.]] Low loss coax transmission line is essential for good performance
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9H03]] (D)
+What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)? #card
+	- [[A.]] Forward gain compared to the gain in the reverse direction
+	- [[B.]] Relative directivity compared to isotropic
+	- [[C.]] Relative directivity compared to a dipole
+	- [[D.]] Peak antenna gain compared to average gain over the hemisphere around and above the antenna
+- [[E9H04]] (B)
+What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] It adds capacitive loading, increasing the bandwidth of the antenna
+	- [[B.]] It eliminates unbalanced capacitive coupling to the antenna’s surroundings, improving the depth of its nulls
+	- [[C.]] It eliminates tracking errors caused by strong out-of-band signals
+	- [[D.]] It increases signal strength by providing a better match to the feed line
+- [[E9H05]] (A)
+What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding? #card
+	- [[A.]] It has a bidirectional null pattern
+	- [[B.]] It does not have a clearly defined null
+	- [[C.]] It is practical for use only on VHF and higher bands
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9H06]] (D)
+What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] Maximum feed point DC resistance at the center of the desired frequency range
+	- [[B.]] Minimum low-angle front-to-back ratio at the design frequency
+	- [[C.]] Maximum DC current in the terminating resistor
+	- [[D.]] Minimum variation in SWR over the desired frequency range
+- [[E9H07]] (B)
+What is the function of a Beverage antenna’s termination resistor? #card
+	- [[A.]] Increase the front-to-side ratio
+	- [[B.]] Absorb signals from the reverse direction
+	- [[C.]] Decrease SWR bandwidth
+	- [[D.]] Eliminate harmonic reception 
+- [[E9H08]] (A)
+What is the function of a sense antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] It modifies the pattern of a DF antenna to provide a null in only one direction
+	- [[B.]] It increases the sensitivity of a DF antenna array
+	- [[C.]] It allows DF antennas to receive signals at different vertical angles
+	- [[D.]] It provides diversity reception that cancels multipath signals
+- [[E9H09]] (A)
+What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna? #card
+	- [[A.]] Cardioid
+	- [[B.]] Bidirectional
+	- [[C.]] Omnidirectional
+	- [[D.]] Hyperbolic
+- [[E9H10]] (C)
+How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased? #card
+	- [[A.]] By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
+	- [[B.]] By utilizing high impedance wire for the coupling loop
+	- [[C.]] By increasing the number of turns and/or the area enclosed by the loop
+	- [[D.]] All these choices are correct
+- [[E9H11]] (B)
+What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas? #card
+	- [[A.]] A very sharp peak
+	- [[B.]] A single null
+	- [[C.]] Broadband response
+	- [[D.]] High radiation angle

pages/Extra Syllabus.md

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+- [[SUBELEMENT E1]] - COMMISSION RULES [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] 68 Questions
+	- [[E1A]] Frequency privileges; signal frequency range; automatic message forwarding; stations aboard ships or aircraft; power restriction on 630- and 2200-meter bands
+	- [[E1B]] Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating
+	  restrictions; spurious emissions; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations
+	- [[E1C]] Automatic and remote control; band-specific regulations; operating in and communicating with
+	  foreign countries; spurious emission standards; HF modulation index limit; band-specific rules
+	- [[E1D]] Amateur Space and Earth stations; telemetry and telecommand rules; identification of balloon
+	  transmissions; one-way communications
+	- [[E1E]] Volunteer examiner program: definitions; qualifications; preparation and administration of exams; reimbursement; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements
+	- [[E1F]] Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; prohibited communications; spread spectrum;
+	  auxiliary stations; Canadian amateurs operating in the US; special temporary authority
+- [[SUBELEMENT E2]] - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] 61 Questions
+	- [[E2A]] Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite
+	  hardware; satellite operations
+	- [[E2B]] Television practices: fast-scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques
+	- [[E2C]] Contest and DX operating; remote operation techniques; log data format; contact confirmation; RF
+	  network systems
+	- [[E2D]] Operating methods: digital modes and procedures for VHF and UHF; APRS; EME procedures; meteor
+	  scatter procedures
+	- [[E2E]] Operating methods: digital modes and procedures for HF
+- [[SUBELEMENT E3]] - RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] 39 Questions
+	- [[E3A]] Electromagnetic Waves and Specialized Propagation: Earth-Moon-Earth (EME) communications;
+	  meteor scatter; microwave tropospheric and scatter propagation; auroral propagation; daily variation of
+	  ionospheric propagation; circular polarization
+	- [[E3B]] Transequatorial propagation; long-path propagation; ordinary and extraordinary waves; chordal
+	  hop; sporadic-E mechanisms; ground-wave propagation
+	- [[E3C]] Propagation prediction and reporting: radio horizon; effects of space-weather phenomena
+- [[SUBELEMENT E4]] - AMATEUR PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] 64 Questions
+	- [[E4A]] Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum analyzers; antenna analyzers;
+	  oscilloscopes; RF measurements
+	- [[E4B]] Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes;
+	  techniques to minimize errors; measurement of Q; instrument calibration; S parameters; vector network
+	  analyzers; RF signals
+	- [[E4C]] Receiver performance: phase noise, noise floor, image rejection, minimum detectable signal (MDS), increasing signal-to-noise ratio and dynamic range, noise figure, reciprocal mixing; selectivity; SDR non-linearity; use of attenuators at low frequencies
+	- [[E4D]] Receiver performance characteristics: dynamic range; intermodulation and cross-modulation
+	  interference; third-order intercept; desensitization; preselector; sensitivity; link margin
+	- [[E4E]] Noise and interference: external RF interference; electrical and computer noise; line noise; DSP
+	  filtering and noise reduction; common-mode current; surge protectors; single point ground panel
+- [[SUBELEMENT E5]] - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] 49 Questions
+	- [[E5A]] Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits; series and parallel resonance; definitions and effects of Q; half-power bandwidth
+	- [[E5B]] Time constants and phase relationships: RL and RC time constants; phase angle in reactive circuits and components; admittance and susceptance
+	- [[E5C]] Coordinate systems and phasors in electronics: rectangular coordinates; polar coordinates; phasors; logarithmic axes
+	- [[E5D]] RF effects in components and circuits: skin effect; real and reactive power; electrical length of
+	  conductors
+- [[SUBELEMENT E6]] - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions - 6 Groups] 69 Questions
+	- [[E6A]] Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials; bipolar junction transistors;
+	  operation and types of field-effect transistors
+	- [[E6B]] Diodes
+	- [[E6C]] Digital ICs: families of digital ICs; gates; programmable logic devices
+	- [[E6D]] Inductors and piezoelectricity: permeability, core material and configuration; transformers;
+	  piezoelectric devices
+	- [[E6E]] Semiconductor materials and packages for RF use
+	- [[E6F]] Electro-optical technology: photoconductivity; photovoltaic devices; optical sensors and encoders; optically isolated switching
+- [[SUBELEMENT E7]] - PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] 99 Questions
+	- [[E7A]] Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits; classes of logic elements; positive and
+	  negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables
+	- [[E7B]] Amplifiers: class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation;
+	  spurious and parasitic suppression; switching-type amplifiers
+	- [[E7C]] Filters and matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter
+	  characteristics; impedance matching
+	- [[E7D]] Power supplies and voltage regulators; solar array charge controllers
+	- [[E7E]] Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase, and balanced modulators; detectors; mixers
+	- [[E7F]] Software defined radio fundamentals: digital signal processing (DSP) filtering, modulation, and
+	  demodulation; analog-digital conversion; digital filters
+	- [[E7G]] Operational amplifiers: characteristics and applications
+	- [[E7H]] Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct
+	  digital synthesizers; stabilizing thermal drift; microphonics; high-accuracy oscillators
+- [[SUBELEMENT E8]] - SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions - 4 Groups] 48 Questions
+	- [[E8A]] Fourier analysis; RMS measurements; average RF power and peak envelope power (PEP);
+	  analog/digital conversion
+	- [[E8B]] Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio;
+	  frequency- and time-division multiplexing; orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)
+	- [[E8C]] Digital signals: digital communication modes; information rate vs. bandwidth; error correction;
+	  constellation diagrams
+	- [[E8D]] Keying defects and overmodulation of digital signals; digital codes; spread spectrum
+- [[SUBELEMENT E9]] - ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions - 8 Groups] 94 Questions
+	- [[E9A]] Basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency; effective radiated
+	  power (ERP) and effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP)
+	- [[E9B]] Antenna patterns and designs: azimuth and elevation patterns; gain as a function of pattern;
+	  antenna modeling
+	- [[E9C]] Practical wire antennas; folded dipoles; phased arrays; effects of ground near antennas
+	- [[E9D]] Yagi antennas; parabolic reflectors; feed point impedance and loading of electrically short antennas;
+	  antenna Q; RF grounding
+	- [[E9E]] Impedance matching: matching antennas to feed lines; phasing lines; power dividers
+	- [[E9F]] Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines; coax versus open wire; velocity factor; electrical length; coaxial cable dielectrics; microstrip
+	- [[E9G]] The Smith chart
+	- [[E9H]] Receiving antennas: radio direction finding (RDF) techniques; Beverage antennas; single- and
+	  multiple-turn loops

pages/contents.md

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+- [[About]]
+- [[Extra Syllabus]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E1]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E2]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E3]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E4]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E5]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E6]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E7]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E8]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT E9]]
+- [[Diagrams]]
+	- [[E5-1]]
+	- [[E6-1]]
+	- [[E6-2]]
+	- [[E6-3]]
+	- [[E7-1]]
+	- [[E7-2]]