From 25913552a25c2c9a8da4809c1a8db9fd84a58ab9 Mon Sep 17 00:00:00 2001
From: Chris <chris@jane.beeps>
Date: Thu, 1 May 2025 13:59:40 -0500
Subject: [PATCH] Initial checkin

---
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diff --git a/journals/2025_05_01.md b/journals/2025_05_01.md
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+++ b/journals/2025_05_01.md
@@ -0,0 +1,2 @@
+- **13:13**  Created this document for the 2023-2027 [[General Syllabus]] and question pool
+- **13:56**  Created the [[About]] page
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.958Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.958Z.Desktop.md
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+G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
+
+- [[G0A01]] (A)
+What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
+	- A. It heats body tissue
+	- B. It causes radiation poisoning
+	- C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
+	- D. It cools body tissue
+--
+- [[G0A02]] (D)
+Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?
+	- A. Its duty cycle
+	- B. Its frequency
+	- C. Its power density
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)]
+How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
+	- A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. By calculation based on computer modeling
+	- C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0A04]] (D)
+What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?
+	- A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
+	- B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
+	- C. The total time of the exposure
+	- D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
+--
+- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)]
+What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?
+	- A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
+	- B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
+	- C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)]
+What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?
+	- A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
+	- C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
+	- D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
+--
+- [[G0A07]] (A)
+What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?
+	- A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
+	- D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
+--
+- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)]
+Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?
+	- A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
+	- B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
+	- C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0A09]] (B)
+What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?
+	- A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
+	- B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
+	- C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
+	- D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
+--
+- [[G0A10]] (C)
+What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
+	- A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
+	- B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
+	- C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0A11]] (C)
+What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
+	- A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
+	- B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
+	- C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
+	- D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
+--
+- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)]
+What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?
+	- A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
+	- B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
+	- C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
+	- D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
+
+- [[G0A01]] (A)
+What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?
+	- A. It heats body tissue
+	- B. It causes radiation poisoning
+	- C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
+	- D. It cools body tissue
+- [[G0A02]] (D)
+Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?
+	- A. Its duty cycle
+	- B. Its frequency
+	- C. Its power density
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)]
+How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?
+	- A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. By calculation based on computer modeling
+	- C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A04]] (D)
+What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?
+	- A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
+	- B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
+	- C. The total time of the exposure
+	- D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
+- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)]
+What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?
+	- A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
+	- B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
+	- C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)]
+What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?
+	- A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
+	- C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
+	- D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
+- [[G0A07]] (A)
+What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?
+	- A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
+	- D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
+- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)]
+Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?
+	- A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
+	- B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
+	- C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A09]] (B)
+What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?
+	- A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
+	- B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
+	- C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
+	- D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
+- [[G0A10]] (C)
+What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?
+	- A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
+	- B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
+	- C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A11]] (C)
+What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?
+	- A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
+	- B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
+	- C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
+	- D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
+- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)]
+What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?
+	- A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
+	- B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
+	- C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
+	- D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,92 @@
+G0B – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety
+
+- [[G0B01]] (A)
+Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?
+	- A. Only the hot wires
+	- B. Only the neutral wire
+	- C. Only the ground wire
+	- D. All wires
+--
+- [[G0B02]] (C)
+According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?
+	- A. AWG number 20
+	- B. AWG number 16
+	- C. AWG number 12
+	- D. AWG number 8
+--
+- [[G0B03]] (D)
+Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?
+	- A. 30 amperes
+	- B. 25 amperes
+	- C. 20 amperes
+	- D. 15 amperes
+--
+- [[G0B04]] (B)
+Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located?
+	- A. As close to the station equipment as possible
+	- B. Outside the building
+	- C. Next to the closest power pole
+	- D. Parallel to the water supply line
+--
+- [[G0B05]] (B)
+Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?
+	- A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
+	- B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
+	- C. Overvoltage on the hot wires
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0B06]] (C)
+Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?
+	- A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
+	- B. Acceptable modulation limits
+	- C. Electrical safety of the station
+	- D. RF exposure limits of the human body
+--
+- [[G0B07]] (B)
+Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?
+	- A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
+	- B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
+	- C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0B08]] (B)
+What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?
+	- A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
+	- B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
+	- C. Unground the base of the tower
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0B09]] (A)
+Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?
+	- A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
+	- B. The generator must be insulated from ground
+	- C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G0B10]] (A)
+Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?
+	- A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
+	- B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
+	- C. Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
+	- D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
+--
+- [[G0B11]] (D)
+Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?
+	- A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
+	- B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
+	- C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
+	- D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
+--
+- [[G0B12]] (C)
+What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?
+	- A. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
+	- B. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
+	- C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
+	- D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
+--
+- [[G0B13]] (A)
+Where should lightning arrestors be located?
+	- A. Where the feed lines enter the building
+	- B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point
+	- C. In series with each ground lead
+	- D. At the closest power pole ground electrode
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,78 @@
+G1A – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
+
+- [[G1A01]] (C) [97.301(d)]
+On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?
+	- A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
+	- B. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
+	- C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
+	- D. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
+--
+- [[G1A02]] (B) [97.305]
+On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?
+	- A. 160 meters
+	- B. 30 meters
+	- C. 17 meters
+	- D. 12 meters
+--
+- [[G1A03]] (B) [97.305]
+On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?
+	- A. 160 meters
+	- B. 30 meters
+	- C. 20 meters
+	- D. 12 meters
+--
+- [[G1A04]] (D) [97.303(h)]
+Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?
+	- A. 11 meters
+	- B. 12 meters
+	- C. 30 meters
+	- D. 60 meters
+--
+- [[G1A05]] (A) [97.301(d)]
+On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?
+	- A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
+	- B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
+	- C. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
+	- D. All of the above
+--
+- [[G1A06]] (C) [97.303]
+Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?
+	- A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
+	- B. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
+	- C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
+	- D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
+--
+- [[G1A07]] (D) [97.305(a)]
+On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?
+	- A. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
+	- B. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
+	- C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
+	- D. The entire band
+--
+- [[G1A08]] (B) [97.301(b)]
+Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?
+	- A. All HF bands
+	- B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
+	- C. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
+	- D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
+--
+- [[G1A09]] (C) [97.301(d)]
+Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?
+	- A. 14250 kHz
+	- B. 18155 kHz
+	- C. 21300 kHz
+	- D. 24900 kHz
+--
+- [[G1A10]] (D) [97.205(b)]
+What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?
+	- A. The entire band
+	- B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
+	- C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
+	- D. The portion above 29.5 MHz
+--
+- [[G1A11]] (B) [97.301]
+When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?
+	- A. The lower frequency portion
+	- B. The upper frequency portion
+	- C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
+	- D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,78 @@
+G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
+
+- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)]
+What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?
+	- A. 50 feet
+	- B. 100 feet
+	- C. 200 feet
+	- D. 250 feet
+--
+- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)]
+With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
+	- A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
+	- B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
+	- C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)]
+Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
+	- A. Observation of propagation and reception
+	- B. Automatic identification of repeaters
+	- C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)]
+Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?
+	- A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
+	- B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
+	- C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
+	- D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
+--
+- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)]
+Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
+	- A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
+	- B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
+	- C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]
+Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?
+	- A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
+	- B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
+	- C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
+	- D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
+--
+- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)]
+What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
+	- A. Only “Q” signals are permitted
+	- B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
+	- C. They are not permitted
+	- D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
+--
+- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)]
+When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
+	- A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
+	- B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
+	- C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+	- D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+--
+- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)]
+On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
+	- A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
+	- B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
+	- C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
+	- D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
+--
+- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)]
+What is the power limit for beacon stations?
+	- A. 10 watts PEP output
+	- B. 20 watts PEP output
+	- C. 100 watts PEP output
+	- D. 200 watts PEP output
+--
+- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)]
+Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
+	- A. The FCC
+	- B. The control operator
+	- C. The IEEE
+	- D. The ITU
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
+
+- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)]
+What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?
+	- A. 50 feet
+	- B. 100 feet
+	- C. 200 feet
+	- D. 250 feet
+- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)]
+With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?
+	- A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
+	- B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
+	- C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)]
+Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?
+	- A. Observation of propagation and reception
+	- B. Automatic identification of repeaters
+	- C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)]
+Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?
+	- A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
+	- B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
+	- C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
+	- D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
+- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)]
+Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?
+	- A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
+	- B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
+	- C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]
+Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?
+	- A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
+	- B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
+	- C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
+	- D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
+- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)]
+What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?
+	- A. Only “Q” signals are permitted
+	- B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
+	- C. They are not permitted
+	- D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
+- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)]
+When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?
+	- A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
+	- B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
+	- C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+	- D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)]
+On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?
+	- A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
+	- B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
+	- C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
+	- D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
+- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)]
+What is the power limit for beacon stations?
+	- A. 10 watts PEP output
+	- B. 20 watts PEP output
+	- C. 100 watts PEP output
+	- D. 200 watts PEP output
+- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)]
+Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?
+	- A. The FCC
+	- B. The control operator
+	- C. The IEEE
+	- D. The ITU
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md
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+G1C – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements
+
+- [[G1C01]] (A) [97.313(c)(1)]
+What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?
+	- A. 200 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. 2000 watts PEP output
+--
+- [[G1C02]] (C) [97.313]
+What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?
+	- A. 50 watts PEP output
+	- B. 200 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
+--
+- [[G1C03]] (A) [97.303(h)(1)]
+What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?
+	- A. 2.8 kHz
+	- B. 5.6 kHz
+	- C. 1.8 kHz
+	- D. 3 kHz
+--
+- [[G1C04]] (A) [97.303(i)]
+Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?
+	- A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
+	- B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
+	- C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
+	- D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
+--
+- [[G1C05]] (C) [97.313]
+What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?
+	- A. 100 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. 2000 watts PEP output
+--
+- [[G1C06]] (D) [97.313]
+What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?
+	- A. 200 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1200 watts PEP output
+	- D. 1500 watts PEP output
+--
+- [[G1C07]] (C) [97.309(a)(4)]
+What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air? 
+	- A. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
+	- B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
+	- C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
+	- D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
+--
+- [[G1C08]] (D) [97.307(f)(3)]
+What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz?
+	- A. 56 kilobaud
+	- B. 19.6 kilobaud
+	- C. 1200 baud
+	- D. 300 baud
+--
+- [[G1C09]] (C) [97.313(i)]
+What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?
+	- A. 1500 watts PEP
+	- B. 10 watts RMS
+	- C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
+	- D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
+--
+- [[G1C10]] (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)]
+What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band?
+	- A. 56 kilobaud
+	- B. 19.6 kilobaud
+	- C. 1200 baud
+	- D. 300 baud
+--
+- [[G1C11]] (D) [97.313]
+What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?
+	- A. RMS output from the transmitter
+	- B. RMS input to the antenna
+	- C. PEP input to the antenna
+	- D. PEP output from the transmitter
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md
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+G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
+
+- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)]
+Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
+	- A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
+	- B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
+	- C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
+	- D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
+--
+- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
+What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
+	- A. General and Technician
+	- B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
+	- C. Technician only
+	- D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
+--
+- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
+	- A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
+	- B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
+	- C. On any General or Technician class band segment
+	- D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
+--
+- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)]
+Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?
+	- A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
+	- D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
+--
+- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7]
+When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?
+	- A. A US operator/primary station license
+	- B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+	- C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
+	- D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+--
+- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)]
+Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?
+	- A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
+	- B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
+	- C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
+	- D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
+--
+- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)]
+Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
+	- A. The Federal Communications Commission
+	- B. The Universal Licensing System
+	- C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
+	- D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
+--
+- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)]
+Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
+	- A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
+	- B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
+	- C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
+	- D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
+--
+- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
+	- A. 30 days
+	- B. 180 days
+	- C. 365 days
+	- D. For as long as your current license is valid
+--
+- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)]
+What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
+	- A. 16 years
+	- B. 18 years
+	- C. 21 years
+	- D. There is no age limit
+--
+- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505]
+What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
+	- A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
+	- B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
+	- C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
+	- D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
+--
+- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507]
+When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?
+	- A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
+	- B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
+	- C. Only those of the remote station’s country
+	- D. Only those of the FCC
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md
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+G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
+
+- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)]
+Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?
+	- A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
+	- B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
+	- C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
+	- D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
+- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
+What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?
+	- A. General and Technician
+	- B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
+	- C. Technician only
+	- D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
+- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?
+	- A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
+	- B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
+	- C. On any General or Technician class band segment
+	- D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
+- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)]
+Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?
+	- A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
+	- D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
+- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7]
+When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?
+	- A. A US operator/primary station license
+	- B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+	- C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
+	- D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)]
+Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign?
+	- A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
+	- B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
+	- C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
+	- D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
+- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)]
+Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?
+	- A. The Federal Communications Commission
+	- B. The Universal Licensing System
+	- C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
+	- D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
+- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)]
+Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
+	- A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
+	- B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
+	- C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
+	- D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
+- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?
+	- A. 30 days
+	- B. 180 days
+	- C. 365 days
+	- D. For as long as your current license is valid
+- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)]
+What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?
+	- A. 16 years
+	- B. 18 years
+	- C. 21 years
+	- D. There is no age limit
+- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505]
+What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?
+	- A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
+	- B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
+	- C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
+	- D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
+- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507]
+When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?
+	- A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
+	- B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
+	- C. Only those of the remote station’s country
+	- D. Only those of the FCC
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md
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+G1E – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
+
+- [[G1E01]] (A) [97.115(b)(2)]
+Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?
+	- A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
+	- B. The third party is not a US citizen
+	- C. The third party is speaking in a language other than English
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G1E02]] (D) [97.205(b)]
+When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?
+	- A. Under no circumstances
+	- B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
+	- C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
+	- D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
+--
+- [[G1E03]] (A) [97.221]
+What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?
+	- A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
+	- B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
+	- C. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
+	- D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license 
+--
+- [[G1E04]] (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)]
+Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?
+	- A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
+	- B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
+	- C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G1E05]] (C) [97.115(a)(2), 97.117]
+What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?
+	- A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
+	- B. They must be for other licensed amateurs
+	- C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
+	- D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
+--
+- [[G1E06]] (C) [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations]
+The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?
+	- A. Region 4
+	- B. Region 3
+	- C. Region 2
+	- D. Region 1
+--
+- [[G1E07]] (D) [97.111]
+In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?
+	- A. Anywhere in the band
+	- B. Channels 1 through 4
+	- C. Channels 42 through 45
+	- D. No part
+--
+- [[G1E08]] (B) [97.313(j)]
+What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?
+	- A. 100 milliwatts
+	- B. 10 watts
+	- C. 100 watts
+	- D. 1500 watts
+--
+- [[G1E09]] (A) [97.115]
+Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?
+	- A. Under no circumstances
+	- B. When messages are encrypted
+	- C. When messages are not encrypted
+	- D. When under automatic control
+--
+- [[G1E10]] (A) [97.101]
+Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?
+	- A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
+	- B. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies 
+	- C. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
+	- D. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
+--
+- [[G1E11]] (D) [97.221, 97.305]
+On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?
+	- A. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
+	- B. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
+	- C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
+	- D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
+--
+- [[G1E12]] (A) [97.115]
+When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?
+	- A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
+	- B. Under no circumstances except for emergencies
+	- C. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
+	- D. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md
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+G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations
+
+- [[G2A01]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+--
+- [[G2A02]] (B)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+--
+- [[G2A03]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+--
+- [[G2A04]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+--
+- [[G2A05]] (C)
+Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
+	- A. Frequency modulation
+	- B. Double sideband
+	- C. Single sideband
+	- D. Single phase modulation
+--
+- [[G2A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
+	- A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
+	- B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
+	- C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
+	- D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
+--
+- [[G2A07]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?
+	- A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
+	- B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
+	- C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
+	- D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
+--
+- [[G2A08]] (B)
+What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?
+	- A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
+	- B. Say your call sign once
+	- C. Say “Breaker Breaker”
+	- D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
+--
+- [[G2A09]] (D)
+Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
+	- A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
+	- B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
+	- C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
+	- D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice
+--
+- [[G2A10]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?
+	- A. The received signal is more natural sounding
+	- B. It allows “hands free” operation
+	- C. It occupies less bandwidth
+	- D. It provides more power output
+--
+- [[G2A11]] (C)
+Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?
+	- A. Any caller is welcome to respond
+	- B. Only stations in Germany
+	- C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
+	- D. Only contest stations
+--
+- [[G2A12]] (B)
+What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?
+	- A. RF clipping level
+	- B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
+	- C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
+	- D. Attenuator level
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md
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+G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations
+
+- [[G2A01]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A02]] (B)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A03]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A04]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A05]] (C)
+Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?
+	- A. Frequency modulation
+	- B. Double sideband
+	- C. Single sideband
+	- D. Single phase modulation
+- [[G2A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?
+	- A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
+	- B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
+	- C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
+	- D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
+- [[G2A07]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?
+	- A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
+	- B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
+	- C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
+	- D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
+- [[G2A08]] (B)
+What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?
+	- A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
+	- B. Say your call sign once
+	- C. Say “Breaker Breaker”
+	- D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
+- [[G2A09]] (D)
+Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?
+	- A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
+	- B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
+	- C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
+	- D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice
+- [[G2A10]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?
+	- A. The received signal is more natural sounding
+	- B. It allows “hands free” operation
+	- C. It occupies less bandwidth
+	- D. It provides more power output
+- [[G2A11]] (C)
+Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”?
+	- A. Any caller is welcome to respond
+	- B. Only stations in Germany
+	- C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
+	- D. Only contest stations
+- [[G2A12]] (B)
+What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?
+	- A. RF clipping level
+	- B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
+	- C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
+	- D. Attenuator level
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md
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+G2B – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation
+
+- [[G2B01]] (C) [97.101(b), (c)]
+Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?
+	- A. Nets have priority
+	- B. QSOs in progress have priority
+	- C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
+	- D. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
+--
+- [[G2B02]] (B)
+What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?
+	- A. Inform your local emergency coordinator
+	- B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
+	- C. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
+	- D. Immediately cease all transmissions
+--
+- [[G2B03]] (C)
+What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?
+	- A. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
+	- B. Decrease power and continue to transmit
+	- C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
+	- D. Switch to the opposite sideband
+--
+- [[G2B04]] (B)
+When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
+	- A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
+	- B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
+	- C. 1 kHz to 3 kHz
+	- D. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
+--
+- [[G2B05]] (C)
+When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?
+	- A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
+	- B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
+	- C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
+	- D. Approximately 6 kHz
+--
+- [[G2B06]] (A)
+How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?
+	- A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
+	- B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
+	- C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
+	- D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
+--
+- [[G2B07]] (C)
+Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?
+	- A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
+	- B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
+	- C. Follow the voluntary band plan
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2B08]] (A)
+What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?
+	- A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
+	- B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
+	- C. Only digital contacts
+	- D. Only SSTV contacts
+--
+- [[G2B09]] (A) [97.407(a)]
+Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?
+	- A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
+	- B. Only a RACES net control operator
+	- C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
+	- D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
+--
+- [[G2B10]] (B)
+Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?
+	- A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
+	- B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
+	- C. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2B11]] (C) [97.407(d)(4)]
+How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?
+	- A. No more than 1 hour per month
+	- B. No more than 2 hours per month
+	- C. No more than 1 hour per week
+	- D. No more than 2 hours per week
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md
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+G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in
+
+- [[G2C01]] (D)
+Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?
+	- A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
+	- B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
+	- C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
+	- D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
+--
+- [[G2C02]] (A)
+What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. Change frequency
+	- C. Increase your power
+	- D. Repeat everything twice
+--
+- [[G2C03]] (C)
+What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?
+	- A. No US stations should call
+	- B. Operating full break-in
+	- C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
+	- D. Closing station now
+--
+- [[G2C04]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?
+	- A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?”
+	- B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
+	- C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
+	- D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
+--
+- [[G2C05]] (B)
+What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
+	- A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
+	- B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
+	- C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
+	- D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
+--
+- [[G2C06]] (D)
+What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?
+	- A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
+	- B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
+	- C. Sending without error
+	- D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
+--
+- [[G2C07]] (A)
+When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?
+	- A. Chirpy or unstable signal
+	- B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
+	- C. 100 percent copy
+	- D. Key clicks
+--
+- [[G2C08]] (C)
+What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
+	- A. SK
+	- B. BK
+	- C. AR
+	- D. KN
+--
+- [[G2C09]] (C)
+What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. We have already confirmed the contact
+	- C. I have received and understood
+	- D. We have worked before
+--
+- [[G2C10]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?
+	- A. Send more slowly
+	- B. Stop sending
+	- C. Zero beat my signal
+	- D. I am troubled by static
+--
+- [[G2C11]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
+	- A. You are sending too fast
+	- B. There is interference on the frequency
+	- C. I am quitting for the day
+	- D. I am ready to receive
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.563Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.563Z.Desktop.md
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+G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in
+
+- [[G2C01]] (D)
+Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?
+	- A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
+	- B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
+	- C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
+	- D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
+- [[G2C02]] (A)
+What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. Change frequency
+	- C. Increase your power
+	- D. Repeat everything twice
+- [[G2C03]] (C)
+What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?
+	- A. No US stations should call
+	- B. Operating full break-in
+	- C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
+	- D. Closing station now
+- [[G2C04]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?
+	- A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?”
+	- B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
+	- C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
+	- D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
+- [[G2C05]] (B)
+What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?
+	- A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
+	- B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
+	- C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
+	- D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
+- [[G2C06]] (D)
+What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?
+	- A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
+	- B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
+	- C. Sending without error
+	- D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
+- [[G2C07]] (A)
+When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?
+	- A. Chirpy or unstable signal
+	- B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
+	- C. 100 percent copy
+	- D. Key clicks
+- [[G2C08]] (C)
+What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?
+	- A. SK
+	- B. BK
+	- C. AR
+	- D. KN
+- [[G2C09]] (C)
+What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. We have already confirmed the contact
+	- C. I have received and understood
+	- D. We have worked before
+- [[G2C10]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?
+	- A. Send more slowly
+	- B. Stop sending
+	- C. Zero beat my signal
+	- D. I am troubled by static
+- [[G2C11]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?
+	- A. You are sending too fast
+	- B. There is interference on the frequency
+	- C. I am quitting for the day
+	- D. I am ready to receive
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md
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+G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations
+
+- [[G2D01]] (A)
+What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?
+	- A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
+	- B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
+	- C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
+	- D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
+--
+- [[G2D02]] (D)
+Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?
+	- A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
+	- B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
+	- C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
+	- D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
+--
+- [[G2D03]] (B)
+What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?
+	- A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
+	- B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
+	- C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2D04]] (B)
+Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
+	- A. A map that shows accurate land masses
+	- B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
+	- C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
+	- D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
+--
+- [[G2D05]] (C)
+Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?
+	- A. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
+	- B. Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
+	- C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
+	- D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary
+--
+- [[G2D06]] (C)
+How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
+	- A. Toward the rising sun
+	- B. Along the gray line
+	- C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
+	- D. Toward the north
+--
+- [[G2D07]] (D)
+Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
+	- A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
+	- B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
+	- C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
+	- D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
+--
+- [[G2D08]] (D)
+Why do many amateurs keep a station log?
+	- A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
+	- B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
+	- C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
+	- D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
+--
+- [[G2D09]] (C)
+Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?
+	- A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
+	- B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
+	- C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2D10]] (B)
+What is QRP operation?
+	- A. Remote piloted model control
+	- B. Low-power transmit operation
+	- C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
+	- D. Traffic relay procedure net operation
+--
+- [[G2D11]] (A)
+Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?
+	- A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
+	- B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
+	- C. To follow standard radiogram structure
+	- D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md
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+G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations
+
+- [[G2D01]] (A)
+What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?
+	- A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
+	- B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
+	- C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
+	- D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
+- [[G2D02]] (D)
+Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?
+	- A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
+	- B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
+	- C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
+	- D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
+- [[G2D03]] (B)
+What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?
+	- A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
+	- B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
+	- C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2D04]] (B)
+Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?
+	- A. A map that shows accurate land masses
+	- B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
+	- C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
+	- D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
+- [[G2D05]] (C)
+Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?
+	- C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
+- [[G2D06]] (C)
+How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?
+	- A. Toward the rising sun
+	- B. Along the gray line
+	- C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
+	- D. Toward the north
+- [[G2D07]] (D)
+Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?
+	- A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
+	- B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
+	- C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
+	- D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
+- [[G2D08]] (D)
+Why do many amateurs keep a station log?
+	- A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
+	- B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
+	- C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
+	- D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
+- [[G2D09]] (C)
+Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?
+	- A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
+	- B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
+	- C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2D10]] (B)
+What is QRP operation?
+	- A. Remote piloted model control
+	- B. Low-power transmit operation
+	- C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
+	- D. Traffic relay procedure net operation
+- [[G2D11]] (A)
+Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?
+	- A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
+	- B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
+	- C. To follow standard radiogram structure
+	- D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md
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+G2E – Digital mode operating procedures
+
+- [[G2E01]] (D)
+Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?
+	- A. USB
+	- B. DSB
+	- C. CW
+	- D. LSB
+--
+- [[G2E02]] (B)
+What is VARA?
+	- A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
+	- B. A digital protocol used with Winlink
+	- C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
+	- D.A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
+--
+- [[G2E03]] (D)
+What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?
+	- A. Frequent retries or timeouts
+	- B. Long pauses in message transmission
+	- C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2E04]] (D)
+Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?
+	- A. Always call on the station’s frequency
+	- B. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
+	- C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
+	- D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
+--
+- [[G2E05]] (B)
+What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?
+	- A. LSB
+	- B. USB
+	- C. DSB
+	- D. SSB
+--
+- [[G2E06]] (B)
+What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?
+	- A. 85 Hz
+	- B. 170 Hz
+	- C. 425 Hz
+	- D. 850 Hz
+--
+- [[G2E07]] (B)
+Which of the following is required when using FT8?
+	- A. A special hardware modem
+	- B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
+	- C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
+	- D. A vertically polarized antenna
+--
+- [[G2E08]] (D)
+In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?
+	- A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
+	- B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
+	- C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
+	- D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
+--
+- [[G2E09]] (C)
+How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?
+	- A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
+	- B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
+	- C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
+	- D. Send a NAK code
+--
+- [[G2E10]] (D)
+Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?
+	- A. Send an email to the system control operator
+	- B. Send QRL in Morse code
+	- C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
+	- D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
+--
+- [[G2E11]] (C)
+What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?
+	- A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
+	- B. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
+	- C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
+	- D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
+--
+- [[G2E12]] (D)
+Which of the following describes Winlink?
+	- A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
+	- B. A form of Packet Radio
+	- C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
+	- D. All of the above
+--
+- [[G2E13]] (B)
+What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?
+	- A. Terminal Node Controller
+	- B. Gateway
+	- C. RJ-45
+	- D. Printer/Server
+--
+- [[G2E14]] (D)
+What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?
+	- A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
+	- B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
+	- C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G2E15]] (C)
+Which of the following is a common location for FT8?
+	- A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
+	- B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
+	- C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
+	- D. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md
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+G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices
+
+- [[G3A01]] (A)
+How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?
+	- A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
+	- B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
+	- C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
+	- D. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
+--
+- [[G3A02]] (B)
+What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?
+	- A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
+	- B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
+	- C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
+	- D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
+--
+- [[G3A03]] (C)
+Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?
+	- A. 28 days
+	- B. 1 to 2 hours
+	- C. 8 minutes
+	- D. 20 to 40 hours
+--
+- [[G3A04]] (D)
+Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?
+	- A. 80 meters and 160 meters
+	- B. 60 meters and 40 meters
+	- C. 30 meters and 20 meters
+	- D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
+--
+- [[G3A05]] (D)
+What is the solar flux index?
+	- A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
+	- B. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
+	- C. Another name for the American sunspot number
+	- D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
+--
+- [[G3A06]] (D)
+What is a geomagnetic storm?
+	- A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
+	- B. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
+	- C. Ripples in the geomagnetic force
+	- D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
+--
+- [[G3A07]] (D)
+At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?
+	- A. At the summer solstice
+	- B. Only at the maximum point
+	- C. Only at the minimum point
+	- D. At any point
+--
+- [[G3A08]] (D)
+How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?
+	- A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
+	- B. Degrade ground wave propagation
+	- C. Improve ground wave propagation
+	- D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
+--
+- [[G3A09]] (A)
+How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?
+	- A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
+	- B. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
+	- C. Improve HF long path propagation
+	- D. Reduce long delayed echoes
+--
+- [[G3A10]] (C)
+What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?
+	- A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
+	- B. Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
+	- C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
+	- D. The position of the Moon in its orbit
+--
+- [[G3A11]] (D)
+How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?
+	- A. 28 days
+	- B. 14 days
+	- C. 4 to 8 minutes
+	- D. 15 hours to several days
+--
+- [[G3A12]] (B)
+What does the K-index measure?
+	- A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
+	- B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
+	- C. The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
+	- D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
+--
+- [[G3A13]] (C)
+What does the A-index measure?
+	- A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
+	- B. The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
+	- C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
+	- D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
+--
+- [[G3A14]] (B)
+How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?
+	- A. HF communication is improved
+	- B. HF communication is disturbed
+	- C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
+	- D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md
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+G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction
+
+- [[G3B01]] (D)
+What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?
+	- A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
+	- B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
+	- C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
+	- D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
+--
+- [[G3B02]] (D)
+What factors affect the MUF?
+	- A. Path distance and location
+	- B. Time of day and season
+	- C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G3B03]] (A)
+Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?
+	- A. Just below the MUF
+	- B. Just above the LUF
+	- C. Just below the critical frequency
+	- D. Just above the critical frequency
+--
+- [[G3B04]] (A)
+Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?
+	- A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
+	- B. Check the A-index
+	- C. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G3B05]] (A)
+How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?
+	- A. They are refracted back to Earth
+	- B. They pass through the ionosphere
+	- C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
+	- D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
+--
+- [[G3B06]] (C)
+What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?
+	- A. They are refracted back to Earth
+	- B. They pass through the ionosphere
+	- C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
+	- D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
+--
+- [[G3B07]] (A)
+What does LUF stand for?
+	- A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
+	- B. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
+	- C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+	- D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
+--
+- [[G3B08]] (B)
+What does MUF stand for?
+	- A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
+	- B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
+	- C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+	- D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+--
+- [[G3B09]] (C)
+What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?
+	- A. 180 miles
+	- B. 1,200 miles
+	- C. 2,500 miles
+	- D. 12,000 miles
+--
+- [[G3B10]] (B)
+What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?
+	- A. 180 miles
+	- B. 1,200 miles
+	- C. 2,500 miles
+	- D. 12,000 miles
+--
+- [[G3B11]] (A)
+What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?
+	- A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
+	- B. HF communications over the path are enhanced
+	- C. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
+	- D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
+--
+- [[G3B12]] (D)
+Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?
+	- A. Poor propagation at any time of day
+	- B. World-wide propagation during daylight hours
+	- C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
+	- D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md
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+G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)
+
+- [[G3C01]] (A)
+Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?
+	- A. The D region
+	- B. The E region
+	- C. The F1 region
+	- D. The F2 region
+--
+- [[G3C02]] (A)
+What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?
+	- A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
+	- D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
+--
+- [[G3C03]] (C)
+Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?
+	- A. Because it is the densest
+	- B. Because of the Doppler effect
+	- C. Because it is the highest
+	- D. Because of temperature inversions
+--
+- [[G3C04]] (D)
+What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?
+	- A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
+	- B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
+	- C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+	- D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+--
+- [[G3C05]] (C)
+Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
+	- A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours
+	- C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours
+--
+- [[G3C06]] (B)
+What is a characteristic of HF scatter?
+	- A. Phone signals have high intelligibility
+	- B. Signals have a fluttering sound
+	- C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
+	- D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night
+--
+- [[G3C07]] (D)
+What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
+	- A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
+	- B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
+	- C. The E region is not present
+	- D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
+--
+- [[G3C08]] (A)
+Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
+	- A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
+	- B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
+	- C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
+	- D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
+--
+- [[G3C09]] (B)
+What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?
+	- A. Faraday rotation
+	- B. Scatter
+	- C. Chordal hop
+	- D. Short-path
+--
+- [[G3C10]] (B)
+What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?
+	- A. Propagation near the MUF
+	- B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
+	- C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
+	- D. Double hop propagation near the LUF
+--
+- [[G3C11]] (D)
+Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?
+	- A. The F2 region
+	- B. The F1 region
+	- C. The E region
+	- D. The D region
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md
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+G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)
+
+- [[G3C01]] (A)
+Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?
+	- A. The D region
+	- B. The E region
+	- C. The F1 region
+	- D. The F2 region
+- [[G3C02]] (A)
+What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle?
+	- A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
+	- D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
+- [[G3C03]] (C)
+Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?
+	- A. Because it is the densest
+	- B. Because of the Doppler effect
+	- C. Because it is the highest
+	- D. Because of temperature inversions
+- [[G3C04]] (D)
+What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?
+	- A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
+	- B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
+	- C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+	- D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+- [[G3C05]] (C)
+Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?
+	- A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours
+	- C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours
+- [[G3C06]] (B)
+What is a characteristic of HF scatter?
+	- A. Phone signals have high intelligibility
+	- B. Signals have a fluttering sound
+	- C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
+	- D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night
+- [[G3C07]] (D)
+What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?
+	- A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
+	- B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
+	- C. The E region is not present
+	- D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
+- [[G3C08]] (A)
+Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?
+	- A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
+	- B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
+	- C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
+	- D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
+- [[G3C09]] (B)
+What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone?
+	- A. Faraday rotation
+	- B. Scatter
+	- C. Chordal hop
+	- D. Short-path
+- [[G3C10]] (B)
+What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?
+	- A. Propagation near the MUF
+	- B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
+	- C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
+	- D. Double hop propagation near the LUF
+- [[G3C11]] (D)
+Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?
+	- A. The F2 region
+	- B. The F1 region
+	- C. The E region
+	- D. The D region
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md
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+G4A – Station configuration and operation
+
+- [[G4A01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?
+	- A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
+	- B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
+	- C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
+	- D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
+--
+- [[G4A02]] (C)
+What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?
+	- A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
+	- B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
+	- C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
+	- D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
+--
+- [[G4A03]] (C)
+How does a noise blanker work?
+	- A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
+	- B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
+	- C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
+	- D. By clipping noise peaks
+--
+- [[G4A04]] (B)
+What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?
+	- A. A pronounced peak
+	- B. A pronounced dip
+	- C. No change will be observed
+	- D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
+--
+- [[G4A05]] (C)
+Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?
+	- A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
+	- B. To reduce harmonic radiation
+	- C. To prevent excessive drive
+	- D. To increase overall efficiency
+--
+- [[G4A06]] (C)
+What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?
+	- A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
+	- B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
+	- C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4A07]] (A)
+What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?
+	- A. Received signals may become distorted
+	- B. Received frequency may become unstable
+	- C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
+	- D. Received frequency may shift several kHz
+--
+- [[G4A08]] (D)
+What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
+	- A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
+	- B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
+	- C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
+	- D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
+--
+- [[G4A09]] (C)
+What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?
+	- A. To prevent key clicks on CW
+	- B. To prevent transient overmodulation
+	- C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
+	- D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
+--
+- [[G4A10]] (B)
+What is the function of an electronic keyer?
+	- A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
+	- B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
+	- C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
+	- D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
+--
+- [[G4A11]] (B)
+Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?
+	- A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
+	- B. The ALC action distorts the signal
+	- C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4A12]] (C)
+Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
+	- A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
+	- B. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
+	- C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
+	- D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
+--
+- [[G4A13]] (A)
+What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?
+	- A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
+	- B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
+	- C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
+	- D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md
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+G4A – Station configuration and operation
+
+- [[G4A01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?
+	- A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
+	- B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
+	- C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
+	- D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
+- [[G4A02]] (C)
+What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW?
+	- A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
+	- B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
+	- C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
+	- D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
+- [[G4A03]] (C)
+How does a noise blanker work?
+	- A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
+	- B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
+	- C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
+	- D. By clipping noise peaks
+- [[G4A04]] (B)
+What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control?
+	- A. A pronounced peak
+	- B. A pronounced dip
+	- C. No change will be observed
+	- D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
+- [[G4A05]] (C)
+Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?
+	- A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
+	- B. To reduce harmonic radiation
+	- C. To prevent excessive drive
+	- D. To increase overall efficiency
+- [[G4A06]] (C)
+What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?
+	- A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
+	- B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
+	- C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4A07]] (A)
+What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased?
+	- A. Received signals may become distorted
+	- B. Received frequency may become unstable
+	- C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
+	- D. Received frequency may shift several kHz
+- [[G4A08]] (D)
+What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?
+	- A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
+	- B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
+	- C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
+	- D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
+- [[G4A09]] (C)
+What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier?
+	- A. To prevent key clicks on CW
+	- B. To prevent transient overmodulation
+	- C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
+	- D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
+- [[G4A10]] (B)
+What is the function of an electronic keyer?
+	- A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
+	- B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
+	- C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
+	- D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
+- [[G4A11]] (B)
+Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?
+	- A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
+	- B. The ALC action distorts the signal
+	- C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4A12]] (C)
+Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?
+	- A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
+	- C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
+	- D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
+- [[G4A13]] (A)
+What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?
+	- A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
+	- B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
+	- C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
+	- D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md
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+G4B – Tests and test equipment
+
+- [[G4B01]] (D)
+What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?
+	- A. An ohmmeter
+	- B. A signal generator
+	- C. An ammeter
+	- D. An oscilloscope
+--
+- [[G4B02]] (D)
+Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?
+	- A. An oscilloscope uses less power
+	- B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
+	- C. Greater precision
+	- D. Complex waveforms can be measured
+--
+- [[G4B03]] (A)
+Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?
+	- A. An oscilloscope
+	- B. A field strength meter
+	- C. A sidetone monitor
+	- D. A wavemeter
+--
+- [[G4B04]] (D)
+What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?
+	- A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
+	- B. An external RF oscillator
+	- C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
+	- D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
+--
+- [[G4B05]] (D)
+Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?
+	- A. It improves the frequency response
+	- B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
+	- C. It improves the resolution of the readings
+	- D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
+--
+- [[G4B06]] (C)
+What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?
+	- A. Better for measuring computer circuits
+	- B. Less prone to overload
+	- C. Higher precision
+	- D. Faster response
+--
+- [[G4B07]] (B)
+What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?
+	- A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
+	- B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
+	- C. Two swept frequency tones
+	- D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
+--
+- [[G4B08]] (A)
+What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?
+	- A. Linearity
+	- B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
+	- C. Percentage of frequency modulation
+	- D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
+--
+- [[G4B09]] (D)
+When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?
+	- A. When testing logic circuits
+	- B. When high precision is desired
+	- C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
+	- D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
+--
+- [[G4B10]] (A)
+Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?
+	- A. Standing wave ratio
+	- B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
+	- C. RF interference
+	- D. Radio wave propagation
+--
+- [[G4B11]] (C)
+Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?
+	- A. Receiver
+	- B. Transmitter
+	- C. Antenna and feed line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4B12]] (B)
+What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?
+	- A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
+	- B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
+	- C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4B13]] (C)
+Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?
+	- A. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
+	- B. Power output from a transmitter
+	- C. Impedance of coaxial cable
+	- D. Gain of a directional antenna
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md
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+G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding
+
+- [[G4C01]] (B)
+Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?
+	- A. Bypass inductor
+	- B. Bypass capacitor
+	- C. Forward-biased diode
+	- D. Reverse-biased diode
+--
+- [[G4C02]] (C)
+Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
+	- A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
+	- B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
+	- C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
+	- D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
+--
+- [[G4C03]] (C)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?
+	- A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
+	- B. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- C. Distorted speech
+	- D. Clearly audible speech
+--
+- [[G4C04]] (A)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?
+	- A. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
+	- C. A chirpy CW signal
+	- D. Severely distorted audio
+--
+- [[G4C05]] (D)
+What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?
+	- A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- C. The ground rod is resonant
+	- D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
+--
+- [[G4C06]] (C)
+What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?
+	- A. Overheating of ground straps
+	- B. Corrosion of the ground rod
+	- C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
+	- D. A ground loop
+--
+- [[G4C07]] (A)
+Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?
+	- A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
+	- B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
+	- C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4C08]] (A)
+Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
+	- A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
+	- B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
+	- C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
+	- D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
+--
+- [[G4C09]] (D)
+How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?
+	- A. Connect all ground conductors in series
+	- B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
+	- C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
+	- D. Bond equipment enclosures together
+--
+- [[G4C10]] (A)
+What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?
+	- A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
+	- B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
+	- C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
+	- D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
+--
+- [[G4C11]] (C)
+What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?
+	- A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
+	- B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
+	- C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
+	- D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
+--
+- [[G4C12]] (D)
+Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?
+	- A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
+	- B. It prevents signal overload
+	- C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
+	- D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.568Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.568Z.Desktop.md
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+G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding
+
+- [[G4C01]] (B)
+Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?
+	- A. Bypass inductor
+	- B. Bypass capacitor
+	- C. Forward-biased diode
+	- D. Reverse-biased diode
+- [[G4C02]] (C)
+Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?
+	- A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
+	- B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
+	- C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
+	- D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
+- [[G4C03]] (C)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?
+	- A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
+	- B. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- C. Distorted speech
+	- D. Clearly audible speech
+- [[G4C04]] (A)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?
+	- A. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
+	- C. A chirpy CW signal
+	- D. Severely distorted audio
+- [[G4C05]] (D)
+What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?
+	- A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- C. The ground rod is resonant
+	- D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
+- [[G4C06]] (C)
+What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?
+	- A. Overheating of ground straps
+	- B. Corrosion of the ground rod
+	- C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
+	- D. A ground loop
+- [[G4C07]] (A)
+Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?
+	- A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
+	- B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
+	- C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4C08]] (A)
+Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?
+	- A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
+	- B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
+	- C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
+	- D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
+- [[G4C09]] (D)
+How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?
+	- A. Connect all ground conductors in series
+	- B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
+	- C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
+	- D. Bond equipment enclosures together
+- [[G4C10]] (A)
+What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections?
+	- A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
+	- B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
+	- C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
+	- D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
+- [[G4C11]] (C)
+What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?
+	- A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
+	- B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
+	- C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
+	- D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
+- [[G4C12]] (D)
+Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?
+	- A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
+	- B. It prevents signal overload
+	- C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
+	- D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md
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+G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
+
+- [[G4D01]] (A)
+What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?
+	- A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
+	- B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
+	- C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
+	- D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
+--
+- [[G4D02]] (B)
+How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?
+	- A. It increases peak power
+	- B. It increases average power
+	- C. It reduces harmonic distortion
+	- D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
+--
+- [[G4D03]] (D)
+What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?
+	- A. Distorted speech
+	- B. Excess intermodulation products
+	- C. Excessive background noise
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4D04]] (C)
+What does an S meter measure?
+	- A. Carrier suppression
+	- B. Impedance
+	- C. Received signal strength
+	- D. Transmitter power output
+--
+- [[G4D05]] (D)
+How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?
+	- A. It is 10 times less powerful
+	- B. It is 20 times less powerful
+	- C. It is 20 times more powerful
+	- D. It is 100 times more powerful
+--
+- [[G4D06]] (A)
+How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?
+	- A. 6 dB
+	- B. 12 dB
+	- C. 15 dB
+	- D. 18 dB
+--
+- [[G4D07]] (C)
+How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?
+	- A. Approximately 1.5 times
+	- B. Approximately 2 times
+	- C. Approximately 4 times
+	- D. Approximately 8 times
+--
+- [[G4D08]] (C)
+What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?
+	- A. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
+	- B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
+	- C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
+	- D. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
+--
+- [[G4D09]] (B)
+What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?
+	- A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
+	- B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
+	- C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
+	- D. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
+--
+- [[G4D10]] (A)
+How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?
+	- A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
+	- B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
+	- C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
+	- D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
+--
+- [[G4D11]] (B)
+How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?
+	- A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
+	- B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
+	- C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
+	- D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md
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+G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation
+
+- [[G4E01]] (C)
+What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?
+	- A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
+	- B. To reduce radiation resistance
+	- C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
+	- D. To lower the radiation angle
+--
+- [[G4E02]] (D)
+What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?
+	- A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
+	- B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna
+	- C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
+	- D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
+--
+- [[G4E03]] (A)
+Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?
+	- A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
+	- B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
+	- C. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
+	- D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
+--
+- [[G4E04]] (B)
+Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?
+	- A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
+	- B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
+	- C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
+	- D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
+--
+- [[G4E05]] (C)
+Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?
+	- A. “Picket fencing”
+	- B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
+	- C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
+	- D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
+--
+- [[G4E06]] (C)
+What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?
+	- A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
+	- B. Q of the antenna will be very low
+	- C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
+	- D. Harmonic radiation may increase
+--
+- [[G4E07]] (D)
+Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?
+	- A. The battery charging system
+	- B. The fuel delivery system
+	- C. The control computers
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G4E08]] (A)
+In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?
+	- A. Series-parallel
+	- B. Shunt
+	- C. Bypass
+	- D. Full-wave bridge
+--
+- [[G4E09]] (B)
+What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?
+	- A. 0.02 VDC
+	- B. 0.5 VDC
+	- C. 0.2 VDC
+	- D. 1.38 VDC
+--
+- [[G4E10]] (B)
+Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?
+	- A. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
+	- B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
+	- C. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
+	- D. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
+--
+- [[G4E11]] (D)
+What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?
+	- A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
+	- B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
+	- C. A series resistor must be in place
+	- D. The solar panel must have a charge controller
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md
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+G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance
+
+- [[G5A01]] (C)
+What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?
+	- A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
+	- B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
+	- C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
+	- D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
+--
+- [[G5A02]] (B)
+What is reactance?
+	- A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
+	- B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
+	- C. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
+	- D. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
+--
+- [[G5A03]] (D)
+Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Reluctance
+	- C. Admittance
+	- D. Reactance
+--
+- [[G5A04]] (C)
+Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Reluctance
+	- C. Reactance
+	- D. Admittance
+--
+- [[G5A05]] (D)
+How does an inductor react to AC?
+	- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+--
+- [[G5A06]] (A)
+How does a capacitor react to AC?
+	- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+--
+- [[G5A07]] (D)
+What is the term for the inverse of impedance?
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Susceptance
+	- C. Reluctance
+	- D. Admittance
+--
+- [[G5A08]] (C)
+What is impedance?
+	- A. The ratio of current to voltage
+	- B. The product of current and voltage
+	- C. The ratio of voltage to current
+	- D. The product of current and reactance 
+--
+- [[G5A09]] (B)
+What unit is used to measure reactance?
+	- A. Farad
+	- B. Ohm
+	- C. Ampere
+	- D. Siemens
+--
+- [[G5A10]] (D)
+Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?
+	- A. A transformer
+	- B. A Pi-network
+	- C. A length of transmission line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G5A11]] (B)
+What letter is used to represent reactance?
+	- A. Z
+	- B. X
+	- C. B
+	- D. Y
+--
+- [[G5A12]] (D)
+What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance? 
+	- A. Current and voltage are equal
+	- B. Resistance is cancelled
+	- C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
+	- D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md
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+G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
+
+- [[G5B01]] (B)
+What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?
+	- A. Approximately 2 dB
+	- B. Approximately 3 dB
+	- C. Approximately 6 dB
+	- D. Approximately 9 dB
+--
+- [[G5B02]] (C)
+How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?
+	- A. It equals the average of the branch currents
+	- B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
+	- C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
+	- D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
+--
+- [[G5B03]] (B)
+How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?
+	- A. 0.5 watts
+	- B. 200 watts
+	- C. 400 watts
+	- D. 3200 watts
+--
+- [[G5B04]] (A)
+How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?
+	- A. 2.4 watts
+	- B. 24 watts
+	- C. 6 watts
+	- D. 60 watts
+--
+- [[G5B05]] (A)
+How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?
+	- A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
+	- B. Approximately 61 watts
+	- C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
+	- D. Approximately 11 watts
+--
+- [[G5B06]] (B)
+What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?
+	- A. 1.4 watts
+	- B. 100 watts
+	- C. 353.5 watts
+	- D. 400 watts
+--
+- [[G5B07]] (C)
+What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?
+	- A. The peak-to-peak value
+	- B. The peak value
+	- C. The RMS value
+	- D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
+--
+- [[G5B08]] (D)
+What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?
+	- A. 84.8 volts
+	- B. 169.7 volts
+	- C. 240.0 volts
+	- D. 339.4 volts
+--
+- [[G5B09]] (B)
+What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?
+	- A. 8.5 volts
+	- B. 12 volts
+	- C. 24 volts
+	- D. 34 volts
+--
+- [[G5B10]] (C)
+What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?
+	- A. 10.9 percent
+	- B. 12.2 percent
+	- C. 20.6 percent
+	- D. 25.9 percent
+--
+- [[G5B11]] (B)
+What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?
+	- A. 0.707
+	- B. 1.00
+	- C. 1.414
+	- D. 2.00
+--
+- [[G5B12]] (B)
+What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?
+	- A. 173 volts
+	- B. 245 volts
+	- C. 346 volts
+	- D. 692 volts
+--
+- [[G5B13]] (B)
+What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?
+	- A. 530 watts
+	- B. 1060 watts
+	- C. 1500 watts
+	- D. 2120 watts
+--
+- [[G5B14]] (B)
+What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?
+	- A. 8.75 watts
+	- B. 625 watts
+	- C. 2500 watts
+	- D. 5000 watts
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md
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+G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
+
+- [[G5C01]] (C)
+What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?
+	- A. Capacitive coupling
+	- B. Displacement current coupling
+	- C. Mutual inductance
+	- D. Mutual capacitance
+--
+- [[G5C02]] (A)
+What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?
+	- A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
+	- B. The input voltage is divided by 4
+	- C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
+	- D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
+--
+- [[G5C03]] (A)
+What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?
+	- A. 5.9 ohms
+	- B. 0.17 ohms
+	- C. 17 ohms
+	- D. 80 ohms
+--
+- [[G5C04]] (D)
+What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?
+	- A. 300 ohms
+	- B. 150 ohms
+	- C. 75 ohms
+	- D. 67 ohms
+--
+- [[G5C05]] (B)
+Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?
+	- A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
+	- B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
+	- C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
+	- D. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
+--
+- [[G5C06]] (A)
+What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?
+	- A. 360 volts
+	- B. 120 volts
+	- C. 40 volts
+	- D. 25.5 volts 
+--
+- [[G5C07]] (A)
+What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?
+	- A. 3.5 to 1
+	- B. 12 to 1
+	- C. 24 to 1
+	- D. 144 to 1
+--
+- [[G5C08]] (D)
+What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?
+	- A. 576.9 nanofarads
+	- B. 1,733 picofarads
+	- C. 3,583 picofarads
+	- D. 10.750 nanofarads
+--
+- [[G5C09]] (C)
+What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?
+	- A. 0.33 microfarads
+	- B. 3.0 microfarads
+	- C. 33.3 microfarads
+	- D. 300 microfarads
+--
+- [[G5C10]] (C)
+What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?
+	- A. 0.30 henries
+	- B. 3.3 henries
+	- C. 3.3 millihenries
+	- D. 30 millihenries
+--
+- [[G5C11]] (C)
+What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?
+	- A. 7 millihenries
+	- B. 14.3 millihenries
+	- C. 70 millihenries
+	- D. 1,000 millihenries
+--
+- [[G5C12]] (B)
+What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?
+	- A. 0.07 microfarads
+	- B. 14.3 microfarads
+	- C. 70 microfarads
+	- D. 1,000 microfarads
+--
+- [[G5C13]] (C)
+Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?
+	- A. An inductor in series
+	- B. An inductor in parallel
+	- C. A capacitor in parallel
+	- D. A capacitor in series
+--
+- [[G5C14]] (D)
+Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?
+	- A. A capacitor in series
+	- B. A capacitor in parallel
+	- C. An inductor in parallel
+	- D. An inductor in series
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,85 @@
+G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
+
+- [[G6A01]] (C)
+What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?
+	- A. 6 volts
+	- B. 8.5 volts
+	- C. 10.5 volts
+	- D. 12 volts
+--
+- [[G6A02]] (B)
+What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?
+	- A. Long life
+	- B. High discharge current
+	- C. High voltage
+	- D. Rapid recharge
+--
+- [[G6A03]] (B)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+--
+- [[G6A04]] (C)
+Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. Much less leakage than any other type
+	- C. High capacitance for a given volume
+	- D. Inexpensive RF capacitor
+--
+- [[G6A05]] (C)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+--
+- [[G6A06]] (B)
+Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?
+	- A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
+	- B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
+	- C. The resistor could overheat
+	- D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
+--
+- [[G6A07]] (A)
+What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?
+	- A. Saturation and cutoff
+	- B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
+	- C. Peak and valley current points
+	- D. Enhancement and depletion modes
+--
+- [[G6A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. High stability
+	- C. High capacitance for given volume
+	- D. Comparatively low cost
+--
+- [[G6A09]] (B)
+Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?
+	- A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
+	- B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
+	- C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
+	- D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
+--
+- [[G6A10]] (A)
+Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
+	- A. Control grid
+	- B. Suppressor grid
+	- C. Screen grid
+	- D. Trigger electrode
+--
+- [[G6A11]] (C)
+What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?
+	- A. Its reactance increases
+	- B. Harmonics are generated
+	- C. It becomes capacitive
+	- D. Catastrophic failure is likely
+--
+- [[G6A12]] (A)
+What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
+	- A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
+	- B. To increase efficiency
+	- C. To increase the control grid resistance
+	- D. To decrease plate resistance
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
+
+- [[G6A01]] (C)
+What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?
+	- A. 6 volts
+	- B. 8.5 volts
+	- C. 10.5 volts
+	- D. 12 volts
+- [[G6A02]] (B)
+What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?
+	- A. Long life
+	- B. High discharge current
+	- C. High voltage
+	- D. Rapid recharge
+- [[G6A03]] (B)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+- [[G6A04]] (C)
+Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. Much less leakage than any other type
+	- C. High capacitance for a given volume
+	- D. Inexpensive RF capacitor
+- [[G6A05]] (C)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+- [[G6A06]] (B)
+Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?
+	- A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
+	- B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
+	- C. The resistor could overheat
+	- D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
+- [[G6A07]] (A)
+What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?
+	- A. Saturation and cutoff
+	- B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
+	- C. Peak and valley current points
+	- D. Enhancement and depletion modes
+- [[G6A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. High stability
+	- C. High capacitance for given volume
+	- D. Comparatively low cost
+- [[G6A09]] (B)
+Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?
+	- A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
+	- B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
+	- C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
+	- D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
+- [[G6A10]] (A)
+Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?
+	- A. Control grid
+	- B. Suppressor grid
+	- C. Screen grid
+	- D. Trigger electrode
+- [[G6A11]] (C)
+What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?
+	- A. Its reactance increases
+	- B. Harmonics are generated
+	- C. It becomes capacitive
+	- D. Catastrophic failure is likely
+- [[G6A12]] (A)
+What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?
+	- A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
+	- B. To increase efficiency
+	- C. To increase the control grid resistance
+	- D. To decrease plate resistance
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md
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+G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores
+
+- [[G6B01]] (C)
+What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?
+	- A. Its conductivity
+	- B. Its thickness
+	- C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
+	- D. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
+--
+- [[G6B02]] (B)
+What is meant by the term MMIC?
+	- A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
+	- B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
+	- C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
+	- D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
+--
+- [[G6B03]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?
+	- A. Low power consumption
+	- B. High power handling capability
+	- C. Better suited for RF amplification
+	- D. Better suited for power supply regulation
+--
+- [[G6B04]] (C)
+What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?
+	- A. 50 MHz
+	- B. 500 MHz
+	- C. 4 GHz
+	- D. 40 GHz
+--
+- [[G6B05]] (D)
+What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?
+	- A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
+	- B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
+	- C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G6B06]] (D)
+What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?
+	- A. Digital
+	- B. MMIC
+	- C. Programmable Logic
+	- D. Analog
+--
+- [[G6B07]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a type N connector?
+	- A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
+	- B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
+	- C. A low noise figure VHF connector
+	- D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
+--
+- [[G6B08]] (D)
+How is an LED biased when emitting light?
+	- A. In the tunnel-effect region
+	- B. At the Zener voltage
+	- C. Reverse biased
+	- D. Forward biased
+--
+- [[G6B09]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+- [[G6B10]] (A)
+How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?
+	- A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path
+	- B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
+	- C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
+	- D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
+--
+- [[G6B11]] (B)
+What is an SMA connector?
+	- A. A type-S to type-M adaptor
+	- B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
+	- C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
+	- D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
+--
+- [[G6B12]] (C)
+Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?
+	- A. PL-259
+	- B. BNC
+	- C. RCA Phono
+	- D. Type N
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.971Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.971Z.Desktop.md
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+G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols
+
+- [[G7A01]] (B)
+What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?
+	- A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
+	- B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
+	- C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
+	- D. It eliminates ground loop current
+--
+- [[G7A02]] (C)
+Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
+	- A. Diodes
+	- B. Transformers and transducers
+	- C. Capacitors and inductors
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G7A03]] (A)
+Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?
+	- A. Full-wave
+	- B. Full-wave bridge
+	- C. Half-wave
+	- D. Synchronous
+--
+- [[G7A04]] (A)
+What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?
+	- A. Only one diode is required
+	- B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
+	- C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
+	- D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
+--
+- [[G7A05]] (B)
+What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+--
+- [[G7A06]] (D)
+What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+--
+- [[G7A07]] (A)
+What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
+	- A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
+	- B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
+	- C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
+	- D. A steady DC voltage
+--
+- [[G7A08]] (C)
+Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
+	- A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
+	- B. Fewer circuit components are required
+	- C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
+	- D. Inherently more stable
+--
+- [[G7A09]] (C)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
+	- A. Symbol 2
+	- B. Symbol 5
+	- C. Symbol 1
+	- D. Symbol 4
+--
+- [[G7A10]] (D)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 1
+	- C. Symbol 11
+	- D. Symbol 5
+--
+- [[G7A11]] (B)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
+	- A. Symbol 1
+	- B. Symbol 2
+	- C. Symbol 7
+	- D. Symbol 11
+--
+- [[G7A12]] (C)
+Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 7
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
+--
+- [[G7A13]] (A)
+Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
+	- A. Symbol 7
+	- B. Symbol 11
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,80 @@
+G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols
+
+- [[G7A01]] (B)
+What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?
+	- A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
+	- B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
+	- C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
+	- D. It eliminates ground loop current
+- [[G7A02]] (C)
+Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?
+	- A. Diodes
+	- B. Transformers and transducers
+	- C. Capacitors and inductors
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G7A03]] (A)
+Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?
+	- A. Full-wave
+	- B. Full-wave bridge
+	- C. Half-wave
+	- D. Synchronous
+- [[G7A04]] (A)
+What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?
+	- A. Only one diode is required
+	- B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
+	- C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
+	- D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
+- [[G7A05]] (B)
+What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+- [[G7A06]] (D)
+What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+- [[G7A07]] (A)
+What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?
+	- A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
+	- B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
+	- C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
+	- D. A steady DC voltage
+- [[G7A08]] (C)
+Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?
+	- A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
+	- B. Fewer circuit components are required
+	- C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
+	- D. Inherently more stable
+- [[G7A09]] (C)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?
+	- A. Symbol 2
+	- B. Symbol 5
+	- C. Symbol 1
+	- D. Symbol 4
+- [[G7A10]] (D)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 1
+	- C. Symbol 11
+	- D. Symbol 5
+- [[G7A11]] (B)
+Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?
+	- A. Symbol 1
+	- B. Symbol 2
+	- C. Symbol 7
+	- D. Symbol 11
+- [[G7A12]] (C)
+Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 7
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
+- [[G7A13]] (A)
+Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?
+	- A. Symbol 7
+	- B. Symbol 11
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,78 @@
+G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
+
+- [[G7B01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?
+	- A. To limit the modulation index
+	- B. To eliminate self-oscillations
+	- C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
+	- D. To keep the carrier on frequency
+--
+- [[G7B02]] (D)
+Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
+	- A. Class A
+	- B. Class B
+	- C. Class AB
+	- D. Class C
+--
+- [[G7B03]] (B)
+Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
+	- A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
+	- B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
+	- C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
+	- D. Output is low only when both inputs are high
+--
+- [[G7B04]] (A)
+In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?
+	- A. 100%
+	- B. More than 50% but less than 100%
+	- C. 50%
+	- D. Less than 50%
+--
+- [[G7B05]] (C)
+How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
+	- A. 3
+	- B. 6
+	- C. 8
+	- D. 16
+--
+- [[G7B06]] (A)
+What is a shift register?
+	- A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
+	- B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
+	- C. A digital mixer
+	- D. An analog mixer
+--
+- [[G7B07]] (D)
+Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
+	- A. An amplifier and a divider
+	- B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
+	- C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
+	- D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
+--
+- [[G7B08]] (B)
+How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
+	- A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
+	- B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
+	- C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
+	- D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
+--
+- [[G7B09]] (C)
+What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
+	- A. The number of stages in the counter
+	- B. The number of stages in the divider
+	- C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
+	- D. The time delay of the lag circuit
+--
+- [[G7B10]] (B)
+Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
+	- A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
+	- B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
+	- C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
+	- D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
+--
+- [[G7B11]] (B)
+For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
+	- A. SSB
+	- B. FM
+	- C. AM
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
+
+- [[G7B01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?
+	- A. To limit the modulation index
+	- B. To eliminate self-oscillations
+	- C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
+	- D. To keep the carrier on frequency
+- [[G7B02]] (D)
+Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?
+	- A. Class A
+	- B. Class B
+	- C. Class AB
+	- D. Class C
+- [[G7B03]] (B)
+Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?
+	- A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
+	- B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
+	- C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
+	- D. Output is low only when both inputs are high
+- [[G7B04]] (A)
+In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?
+	- A. 100%
+	- B. More than 50% but less than 100%
+	- C. 50%
+	- D. Less than 50%
+- [[G7B05]] (C)
+How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?
+	- A. 3
+	- B. 6
+	- C. 8
+	- D. 16
+- [[G7B06]] (A)
+What is a shift register?
+	- A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
+	- B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
+	- C. A digital mixer
+	- D. An analog mixer
+- [[G7B07]] (D)
+Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?
+	- A. An amplifier and a divider
+	- B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
+	- C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
+	- D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
+- [[G7B08]] (B)
+How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?
+	- A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
+	- B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
+	- C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
+	- D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
+- [[G7B09]] (C)
+What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?
+	- A. The number of stages in the counter
+	- B. The number of stages in the divider
+	- C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
+	- D. The time delay of the lag circuit
+- [[G7B10]] (B)
+Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?
+	- A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
+	- B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
+	- C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
+	- D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
+- [[G7B11]] (B)
+For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?
+	- A. SSB
+	- B. FM
+	- C. AM
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
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+G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)
+
+- [[G7C01]] (B)
+What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?
+	- A. Carrier oscillator
+	- B. Filter
+	- C. IF amplifier
+	- D. RF amplifier
+--
+- [[G7C02]] (D)
+What output is produced by a balanced modulator?
+	- A. Frequency modulated RF
+	- B. Audio with equalized frequency response
+	- C. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
+	- D. Double-sideband modulated RF
+--
+- [[G7C03]] (B)
+What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?
+	- A. To minimize transmitter power output
+	- B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
+	- C. To reduce power supply ripple
+	- D. To minimize radiation resistance
+--
+- [[G7C04]] (D)
+How is a product detector used?
+	- A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
+	- B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
+	- C. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
+	- D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
+--
+- [[G7C05]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?
+	- A. Extremely narrow tuning range
+	- B. Relatively high-power output
+	- C. Pure sine wave output
+	- D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
+--
+- [[G7C06]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?
+	- A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
+	- B. Fewer digital components are required
+	- C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
+	- D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
+--
+- [[G7C07]] (A)
+What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband?
+	- A. Insertion loss
+	- B. Return loss
+	- C. Q
+	- D. Ultimate rejection
+--
+- [[G7C08]] (D)
+Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?
+	- A. Input amplifier gain
+	- B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
+	- C. Input amplifier noise figure
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G7C09]] (B)
+What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?
+	- A. Zero
+	- B. 90 degrees
+	- C. 180 degrees
+	- D. 45 degrees
+--
+- [[G7C10]] (B)
+What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?
+	- A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
+	- B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
+	- C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
+	- D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
+--
+- [[G7C11]] (D)
+Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?
+	- A. Filtering
+	- B. Detection 
+	- C. Modulation
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G7C12]] (C)
+What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power?
+	- A. Notch frequency
+	- B. Neper frequency
+	- C. Cutoff frequency
+	- D. Rolloff frequency
+--
+- [[G7C13]] (D)
+What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?
+	- A. Notch depth
+	- B. Rolloff
+	- C. Insertion loss
+	- D. Ultimate rejection
+--
+- [[G7C14]] (A)
+The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?
+	- A. Upper and lower half-power
+	- B. Cutoff and rolloff
+	- C. Pole and zero
+	- D. Image and harmonic
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
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+G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
+
+- [[G8A01]] (B)
+How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?
+	- A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
+	- B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
+	- C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
+	- D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
+--
+- [[G8A02]] (B)
+What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?
+	- A. Phase convolution
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Phase transformation
+	- D. Phase inversion
+--
+- [[G8A03]] (D)
+What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
+	- A. Frequency convolution
+	- B. Frequency transformation
+	- C. Frequency conversion
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+--
+- [[G8A04]] (B)
+What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
+	- A. Multiplex modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Amplitude modulation
+	- D. Pulse modulation
+--
+- [[G8A05]] (D)
+What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
+	- A. Power modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Frequency modulation
+	- D. Amplitude modulation
+--
+- [[G8A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
+	- A. It is sideband sensitive
+	- B. Its encoding provides error correction
+	- C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G8A07]] (A)
+Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
+	- A. Single sideband
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Phase modulation
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+--
+- [[G8A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
+	- A. Insufficient audio
+	- B. Insufficient bandwidth
+	- C. Frequency drift
+	- D. Excessive bandwidth
+--
+- [[G8A09]] (A)
+What type of modulation is used by FT8?
+	- A. 8-tone frequency shift keying
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Amplitude compressed AM
+	- D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
+--
+- [[G8A10]] (C)
+What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?
+	- A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
+	- B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
+	- C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
+	- D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
+--
+- [[G8A11]] (A)
+What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
+	- A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
+	- B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
+	- C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
+	- D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
+--
+- [[G8A12]] (D)
+What is QPSK modulation?
+	- A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
+	- B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
+	- C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
+	- D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
+--
+- [[G8A13]] (C)
+What is a link budget?
+	- A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
+	- B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
+	- C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
+	- D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
+--
+- [[G8A14]] (B)
+What is link margin?
+	- A. The opposite of fade margin
+	- B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
+	- C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
+	- D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md
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+G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
+
+- [[G8A01]] (B)
+How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?
+	- A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
+	- B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
+	- C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
+	- D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
+- [[G8A02]] (B)
+What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?
+	- A. Phase convolution
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Phase transformation
+	- D. Phase inversion
+- [[G8A03]] (D)
+What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?
+	- A. Frequency convolution
+	- B. Frequency transformation
+	- C. Frequency conversion
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+- [[G8A04]] (B)
+What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?
+	- A. Multiplex modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Amplitude modulation
+	- D. Pulse modulation
+- [[G8A05]] (D)
+What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?
+	- A. Power modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Frequency modulation
+	- D. Amplitude modulation
+- [[G8A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?
+	- A. It is sideband sensitive
+	- B. Its encoding provides error correction
+	- C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G8A07]] (A)
+Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?
+	- A. Single sideband
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Phase modulation
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+- [[G8A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?
+	- A. Insufficient audio
+	- B. Insufficient bandwidth
+	- C. Frequency drift
+	- D. Excessive bandwidth
+- [[G8A09]] (A)
+What type of modulation is used by FT8?
+	- A. 8-tone frequency shift keying
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Amplitude compressed AM
+	- D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
+- [[G8A10]] (C)
+What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?
+	- A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
+	- B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
+	- C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
+	- D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
+- [[G8A11]] (A)
+What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?
+	- A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
+	- B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
+	- C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
+	- D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
+- [[G8A12]] (D)
+What is QPSK modulation?
+	- A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
+	- B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
+	- C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
+	- D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
+- [[G8A13]] (C)
+What is a link budget?
+	- A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
+	- B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
+	- C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
+	- D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
+- [[G8A14]] (B)
+What is link margin?
+	- A. The opposite of fade margin
+	- B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
+	- C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
+	- D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md
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+G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation
+
+- [[G8B01]] (B)
+Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?
+	- A. Image frequency
+	- B. Local oscillator
+	- C. RF input
+	- D. Beat frequency oscillator
+--
+- [[G8B02]] (B)
+What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?
+	- A. Quadrature response
+	- B. Image response
+	- C. Mixer interference
+	- D. Intermediate interference
+--
+- [[G8B03]] (A)
+What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?
+	- A. Heterodyning
+	- B. Synthesizing
+	- C. Frequency inversion
+	- D. Phase inversion
+--
+- [[G8B04]] (D)
+What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?
+	- A. Mixer
+	- B. Reactance modulator
+	- C. Balanced converter
+	- D. Multiplier
+--
+- [[G8B05]] (C)
+Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?
+	- A. Second harmonics
+	- B. Even-order
+	- C. Odd-order
+	- D. Intercept point
+--
+- [[G8B06]] (D)
+What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?
+	- A. 3 kHz
+	- B. 5 kHz
+	- C. 8 kHz
+	- D. 16 kHz
+--
+- [[G8B07]] (B)
+What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?
+	- A. 101.75 Hz
+	- B. 416.7 Hz
+	- C. 5 kHz
+	- D. 60 kHz
+--
+- [[G8B08]] (B)
+Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?
+	- A. To aid in tuning your transmitter
+	- B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
+	- C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
+	- D. To prevent overmodulation
+--
+- [[G8B09]] (D)
+Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?
+	- A. It is required by FCC rules
+	- B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
+	- C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
+	- D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
+--
+- [[G8B10]] (B)
+What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?
+	- A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
+	- B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
+	- C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
+	- D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
+--
+- [[G8B11]] (C)
+What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?
+	- A. The ratio
+	- B. The average
+	- C. The sum and difference
+	- D. The arithmetic product
+--
+- [[G8B12]] (A)
+What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?
+	- A. Intermodulation
+	- B. Heterodyning
+	- C. Detection
+	- D. Rolloff
+--
+- [[G8B13]] (C)
+Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?
+	- A. 5F1-3F2
+	- B. 3F1-F2
+	- C. 2F1-F2
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md
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--- /dev/null
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+G8C – Digital emission modes
+
+- [[G8C01]] (C)
+On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?
+	- A. 432 MHz
+	- B. 902 MHz
+	- C. 2.4 GHz
+	- D. 10.7 GHz
+--
+- [[G8C02]] (A)
+Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?
+	- A. WSPR
+	- B. MFSK16
+	- C. PSK31
+	- D. SSB-SC
+--
+- [[G8C03]] (C)
+What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?
+	- A. Directory
+	- B. Preamble
+	- C. Header
+	- D. Trailer
+--
+- [[G8C04]] (C)
+Which of the following describes Baudot code?
+	- A. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
+	- B. A code using error detection and correction
+	- C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
+	- D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
+--
+- [[G8C05]] (A)
+In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?
+	- A. Request retransmission of the packet
+	- B. Packet was received without error
+	- C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
+	- D. Entire file received correctly
+--
+- [[G8C06]] (B)
+What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?
+	- A. The checksum overflows
+	- B. The connection is dropped
+	- C. Packets will be routed incorrectly
+	- D. Encoding reverts to the default character set
+--
+- [[G8C07]] (B)
+Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?
+	- A. MSK144
+	- B. FT8
+	- C. AMTOR
+	- D. MFSK32
+--
+- [[G8C08]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?
+	- A. Upper case letters are sent with more power
+	- B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
+	- C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
+	- D. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
+--
+- [[G8C09]] (B)
+Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?
+	- A. Having more nodes increases signal strengths
+	- B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
+	- C. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
+	- D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
+--
+- [[G8C10]] (C)
+How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?
+	- A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
+	- B. By using the Varicode character set
+	- C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
+	- D. By using a parity bit with each character
+--
+- [[G8C11]] (D)
+How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?
+	- A. Dot and dash
+	- B. On and off
+	- C. High and low
+	- D. Mark and space
+--
+- [[G8C12]] (A)
+Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?
+	- A. Varicode
+	- B. Viterbi
+	- C. Volumetric
+	- D. Binary
+--
+- [[G8C13]] (D)
+What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?
+	- A. Long path propagation
+	- B. Backscatter propagation
+	- C. Insufficient modulation
+	- D. Overmodulation
+--
+- [[G8C14]] (C)
+Which of the following describes a waterfall display?
+	- A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
+	- B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
+	- C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
+	- D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
+--
+- [[G8C15]] (C)
+What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?
+	- A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
+	- B. The signal is S3 (weak signals)
+	- C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
+	- D. The signal is 3 dB over S9
+--
+- [[G8C16]] (D)
+Which of the following provide digital voice modes?
+	- A. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
+	- B. FT8, FT4, and FST4
+	- C. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
+	- D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md
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+G9A – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching
+
+- [[G9A01]] (A)
+Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?
+	- A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
+	- B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
+	- C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
+	- D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
+--
+- [[G9A02]] (B)
+What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?
+	- A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
+	- B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
+	- C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
+	- D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
+--
+- [[G9A03]] (D)
+What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line?
+	- A. 50 ohms
+	- B. 75 ohms
+	- C. 100 ohms
+	- D. 450 ohms
+--
+- [[G9A04]] (C)
+What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point?
+	- A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
+	- B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
+	- C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
+	- D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
+--
+- [[G9A05]] (B)
+How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?
+	- A. Attenuation is independent of frequency
+	- B. Attenuation increases
+	- C. Attenuation decreases
+	- D. Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
+--
+- [[G9A06]] (D)
+In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?
+	- A. Ohms per 1,000 feet
+	- B. Decibels per 1,000 feet
+	- C. Ohms per 100 feet
+	- D. Decibels per 100 feet
+--
+- [[G9A07]] (D)
+What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?
+	- A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
+	- B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
+	- C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
+	- D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
+--
+- [[G9A08]] (B)
+If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?
+	- A. 1:1
+	- B. 5:1
+	- C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
+--
+- [[G9A09]] (A)
+What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?
+	- A. 4:1
+	- B. 1:4
+	- C. 2:1
+	- D. 1:2
+--
+- [[G9A10]] (D)
+What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?
+	- A. 2:1
+	- B. 1:2
+	- C. 1:5
+	- D. 5:1
+--
+- [[G9A11]] (A)
+What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?
+	- A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- B. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.976Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.976Z.Desktop.md
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+G9B – Basic dipole and monopole antennas
+
+- [[G9B01]] (B)
+What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?
+	- A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
+	- B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current
+	- C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
+	- D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
+--
+- [[G9B02]] (B)
+Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?
+	- A. Slope the radials upward
+	- B. Slope the radials downward
+	- C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
+	- D. Coil the radials
+--
+- [[G9B03]] (D)
+Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?
+	- A. Bi-directional in azimuth
+	- B. Isotropic
+	- C. Hemispherical
+	- D. Omnidirectional in azimuth
+--
+- [[G9B04]] (A)
+What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?
+	- A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
+	- B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
+	- C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
+	- D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
+--
+- [[G9B05]] (C)
+How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?
+	- A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
+	- B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
+	- C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
+	- D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
+--
+- [[G9B06]] (C)
+Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?
+	- A. As high as possible above the ground
+	- B. Parallel to the antenna element
+	- C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
+	- D. At the center of the antenna
+--
+- [[G9B07]] (B)
+How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?
+	- A. It steadily increases
+	- B. It steadily decreases
+	- C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
+	- D. It is unaffected by the height above ground
+--
+- [[G9B08]] (A)
+How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?
+	- A. It steadily increases
+	- B. It steadily decreases
+	- C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
+	- D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
+--
+- [[G9B09]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?
+	- A. Lower ground losses
+	- B. Lower feed point impedance
+	- C. Shorter radials
+	- D. Lower radiation resistance
+--
+- [[G9B10]] (D)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?
+	- A. 8 feet
+	- B. 16 feet
+	- C. 24 feet
+	- D. 33 feet
+--
+- [[G9B11]] (C)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?
+	- A. 42 feet
+	- B. 84 feet
+	- C. 132 feet
+	- D. 263 feet
+--
+- [[G9B12]] (A)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?
+	- A. 8 feet
+	- B. 11 feet
+	- C. 16 feet
+	- D. 21 feet
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md
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+G9C – Directional antennas
+
+- [[G9C01]] (A) 
+Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. Larger-diameter elements
+	- B. Closer element spacing
+	- C. Loading coils in series with the element
+	- D. Tapered-diameter elements
+--
+- [[G9C02]] (B)
+What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. 1/4 wavelength
+	- B. 1/2 wavelength
+	- C. 3/4 wavelength
+	- D. 1 wavelength
+--
+- [[G9C03]] (A)
+How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
+	- A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
+	- B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
+	- C. They are all the same length
+	- D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
+--
+- [[G9C04]] (B)
+How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
+	- A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
+	- B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
+	- C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
+	- D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
+--
+- [[G9C05]] (A)
+What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. Gain increases
+	- B. Beamwidth increases
+	- C. Front-to-back ratio decreases
+	- D. Resonant frequency is lower
+--
+- [[G9C06]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+- [[G9C07]] (C)
+What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
+	- B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
+	- C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
+	- D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
+--
+- [[G9C08]] (D)
+What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?
+	- A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
+	- B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
+	- C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
+	- D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
+--
+- [[G9C09]] (B)
+In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?
+	- A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
+	- B. Approximately 3 dB higher
+	- C. Approximately 6 dB higher
+	- D. Approximately 9 dB higher
+--
+- [[G9C10]] (D)
+Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. The physical length of the boom
+	- B. The number of elements on the boom
+	- C. The spacing of each element along the boom
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+--
+- [[G9C11]] (A)
+What is a beta or hairpin match?
+	- A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
+	- B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
+	- C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
+	- D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
+--
+- [[G9C12]] (A)
+Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
+	- B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
+	- C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.573Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.573Z.Desktop.md
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+G9C – Directional antennas
+
+- [[G9C01]] (A) 
+Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. Larger-diameter elements
+	- B. Closer element spacing
+	- C. Loading coils in series with the element
+	- D. Tapered-diameter elements
+- [[G9C02]] (B)
+What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. 1/4 wavelength
+	- B. 1/2 wavelength
+	- C. 3/4 wavelength
+	- D. 1 wavelength
+- [[G9C03]] (A)
+How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?
+	- A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
+	- B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
+	- C. They are all the same length
+	- D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
+- [[G9C04]] (B)
+How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?
+	- A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
+	- B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
+	- C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
+	- D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
+- [[G9C05]] (A)
+What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. Gain increases
+	- B. Beamwidth increases
+	- C. Front-to-back ratio decreases
+	- D. Resonant frequency is lower
+- [[G9C06]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+- [[G9C07]] (C)
+What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
+	- B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
+	- C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
+	- D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
+- [[G9C08]] (D)
+What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna?
+	- A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
+	- B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
+	- C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
+	- D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
+- [[G9C09]] (B)
+In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?
+	- A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
+	- B. Approximately 3 dB higher
+	- C. Approximately 6 dB higher
+	- D. Approximately 9 dB higher
+- [[G9C10]] (D)
+Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. The physical length of the boom
+	- B. The number of elements on the boom
+	- C. The spacing of each element along the boom
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G9C11]] (A)
+What is a beta or hairpin match?
+	- A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
+	- B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
+	- C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
+	- D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
+- [[G9C12]] (A)
+Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?
+	- A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
+	- B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
+	- C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md
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+G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications
+
+- [[G9D01]] (A)
+Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
+	- A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
+	- B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+--
+- [[G9D02]] (D)
+What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?
+	- A. Very low
+	- B. Approximately 50 ohms
+	- C. Approximately 300 ohms
+	- D. Very high
+--
+- [[G9D03]] (C)
+In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?
+	- A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
+	- B. Opposite the feed point
+	- C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
+	- D. On the same side as the feed point
+--
+- [[G9D04]] (A)
+What is the primary function of antenna traps?
+	- A. To enable multiband operation
+	- B. To notch spurious frequencies
+	- C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
+	- D. To prevent out-of-band operation
+--
+- [[G9D05]] (D)
+What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
+	- A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
+	- B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
+	- C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
+	- D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
+--
+- [[G9D06]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?
+	- A. Wide bandwidth
+	- B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
+	- C. Harmonic suppression
+	- D. Polarization diversity
+--
+- [[G9D07]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?
+	- A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
+	- B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
+	- C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
+	- D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
+--
+- [[G9D08]] (B)
+How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?
+	- A. By varying its body capacitance
+	- B. By varying the base loading inductance
+	- C. By extending and retracting the whip
+	- D. By deploying a capacitance hat
+--
+- [[G9D09]] (A)
+What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
+	- A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
+	- B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
+	- C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
+	- D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
+--
+- [[G9D10]] (B)
+In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?
+	- A. In the plane of the loop
+	- B. Broadside to the loop
+	- C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
+	- D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
+--
+- [[G9D11]] (D)
+Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
+	- A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
+	- B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
+	- C. They must be fed with open wire line
+	- D. They have poor harmonic rejection
+--
+- [[G9D12]] (A)
+What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
+	- A. Inverted V
+	- B. Inverted L
+	- C. Sloper
+	- D. Lazy H
+--
+- [[G9D13]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+
+SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
+
diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.574Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.574Z.Desktop.md
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+G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications
+
+- [[G9D01]] (A)
+Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?
+	- A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
+	- B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+- [[G9D02]] (D)
+What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?
+	- A. Very low
+	- B. Approximately 50 ohms
+	- C. Approximately 300 ohms
+	- D. Very high
+- [[G9D03]] (C)
+In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna?
+	- A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
+	- B. Opposite the feed point
+	- C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
+	- D. On the same side as the feed point
+- [[G9D04]] (A)
+What is the primary function of antenna traps?
+	- A. To enable multiband operation
+	- B. To notch spurious frequencies
+	- C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
+	- D. To prevent out-of-band operation
+- [[G9D05]] (D)
+What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?
+	- A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
+	- B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
+	- C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
+	- D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
+- [[G9D06]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?
+	- A. Wide bandwidth
+	- B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
+	- C. Harmonic suppression
+	- D. Polarization diversity
+- [[G9D07]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?
+	- A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
+	- B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
+	- C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
+	- D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
+- [[G9D08]] (B)
+How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?
+	- A. By varying its body capacitance
+	- B. By varying the base loading inductance
+	- C. By extending and retracting the whip
+	- D. By deploying a capacitance hat
+- [[G9D09]] (A)
+What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?
+	- A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
+	- B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
+	- C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
+	- D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
+- [[G9D10]] (B)
+In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?
+	- A. In the plane of the loop
+	- B. Broadside to the loop
+	- C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
+	- D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
+- [[G9D11]] (D)
+Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?
+	- A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
+	- B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
+	- C. They must be fed with open wire line
+	- D. They have poor harmonic rejection
+- [[G9D12]] (A)
+What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?
+	- A. Inverted V
+	- B. Inverted L
+	- C. Sloper
+	- D. Lazy H
+- [[G9D13]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+
+SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
+
diff --git a/logseq/config.edn b/logseq/config.edn
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..5ef6e65
--- /dev/null
+++ b/logseq/config.edn
@@ -0,0 +1,421 @@
+{:meta/version 1
+
+ ;; Set the preferred format.
+ ;; Available options:
+ ;; - Markdown (default)
+ ;; - Org
+ ;; :preferred-format "Markdown"
+
+ ;; Set the preferred workflow style.
+ ;; Available options:
+ ;; - :now for NOW/LATER style (default)
+ ;; - :todo for TODO/DOING style
+ :preferred-workflow :now
+
+ ;; Exclude directories/files.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :hidden ["/archived" "/test.md" "../assets/archived"]
+ :hidden []
+
+ ;; Define the default journal page template.
+ ;; Enter the template name between the quotes.
+ :default-templates
+ {:journals ""}
+
+ ;; Set a custom date format for the journal page title.
+ ;; Default value: "MMM do, yyyy"
+ ;; e.g., "Jan 19th, 2038"
+ ;; Example usage e.g., "Tue 19th, Jan 2038"
+ ;; :journal/page-title-format "EEE do, MMM yyyy"
+
+ ;; Specify the journal filename format using a valid date format string.
+ ;; !Warning:
+ ;;   This configuration is not retroactive and affects only new journals.
+ ;;   To show old journal files in the app, manually rename the files in the
+ ;;   journal directory to match the new format.
+ ;; Default value: "yyyy_MM_dd"
+ ;; :journal/file-name-format "yyyy_MM_dd"
+
+ ;; Enable tooltip preview on hover.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ :ui/enable-tooltip? true
+
+ ;; Display brackets [[]] around page references.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ ;; :ui/show-brackets? true
+
+ ;; Display all lines of a block when referencing ((block)).
+ ;; Default value: false
+ :ui/show-full-blocks? false
+
+ ;; Automatically expand block references when zooming in.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ :ui/auto-expand-block-refs? true
+
+ ;; Enable Block timestamps.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ :feature/enable-block-timestamps? false
+
+ ;; Disable accent marks when searching.
+ ;; After changing this setting, rebuild the search index by pressing (^C ^S).
+ ;; Default value: true
+ :feature/enable-search-remove-accents? true
+
+ ;; Enable journals.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ ;; :feature/enable-journals? true
+
+ ;; Enable flashcards.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ ;; :feature/enable-flashcards? true
+
+ ;; Enable whiteboards.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ ;; :feature/enable-whiteboards? true
+
+ ;; Disable the journal's built-in 'Scheduled tasks and deadlines' query.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ ;; :feature/disable-scheduled-and-deadline-query? false
+
+ ;; Specify the number of days displayed in the future for
+ ;; the 'scheduled tasks and deadlines' query.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; Display all scheduled and deadline blocks for the next 14 days:
+ ;; :scheduled/future-days 14
+ ;; Default value: 7
+ ;; :scheduled/future-days 7
+
+ ;; Specify the first day of the week.
+ ;; Available options:
+ ;;  - integer from 0 to 6 (Monday to Sunday)
+ ;; Default value: 6 (Sunday)
+ :start-of-week 6
+
+ ;; Specify a custom CSS import.
+ ;; This option takes precedence over the local `logseq/custom.css` file.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :custom-css-url "@import url('https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/gh/dracula/logseq@master/custom.css');"
+
+ ;; Specify a custom JS import.
+ ;; This option takes precedence over the local `logseq/custom.js` file.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :custom-js-url "https://cdn.logseq.com/custom.js"
+
+ ;; Set a custom Arweave gateway
+ ;; Default gateway: https://arweave.net
+ ;; :arweave/gateway "https://arweave.net"
+
+ ;; Set bullet indentation when exporting
+ ;; Available options:
+ ;;  - `:eight-spaces` as eight spaces
+ ;;  - `:four-spaces` as four spaces
+ ;;  - `:two-spaces` as two spaces
+ ;;  - `:tab` as a tab character (default)
+ ;; :export/bullet-indentation :tab
+
+ ;; Publish all pages within the Graph
+ ;; Regardless of whether individual pages have been marked as public.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ ;; :publishing/all-pages-public? false
+
+ ;; Define the default home page and sidebar status.
+ ;; If unspecified, the journal page will be loaded on startup and the right sidebar will stay hidden.
+ ;; The `:page` value represents the name of the page displayed at startup.
+ ;; Available options for `:sidebar` are:
+ ;; - "Contents" to display the Contents page in the right sidebar.
+ ;; - A specific page name to display in the right sidebar.
+ ;; - An array of multiple pages, e.g., ["Contents" "Page A" "Page B"].
+ ;; If `:sidebar` remains unset, the right sidebar will stay hidden.
+ ;; Examples:
+ ;; 1. Set "Changelog" as the home page and display "Contents" in the right sidebar:
+ ;; :default-home {:page "Changelog", :sidebar "Contents"}
+ ;; 2. Set "Jun 3rd, 2021" as the home page without the right sidebar:
+ ;; :default-home {:page "Jun 3rd, 2021"}
+ ;; 3. Set "home" as the home page and display multiple pages in the right sidebar:
+ ;; :default-home {:page "home", :sidebar ["Page A" "Page B"]}
+
+ ;; Set the default location for storing notes.
+ ;; Default value: "pages"
+ ;; :pages-directory "pages"
+
+ ;; Set the default location for storing journals.
+ ;; Default value: "journals"
+ ;; :journals-directory "journals"
+
+ ;; Set the default location for storing whiteboards.
+ ;; Default value: "whiteboards"
+ ;; :whiteboards-directory "whiteboards"
+
+ ;; Enabling this option converts
+ ;; [[Grant Ideas]] to [[file:./grant_ideas.org][Grant Ideas]] for org-mode.
+ ;; For more information, visit https://github.com/logseq/logseq/issues/672
+ ;; :org-mode/insert-file-link? false
+
+ ;; Configure custom shortcuts.
+ ;; Syntax:
+ ;; 1. + indicates simultaneous key presses, e.g., `Ctrl+Shift+a`.
+ ;; 2. A space between keys represents key chords, e.g., `t s` means
+ ;;    pressing `t` followed by `s`.
+ ;; 3. mod refers to `Ctrl` for Windows/Linux and `Command` for Mac.
+ ;; 4. Use false to disable a specific shortcut.
+ ;; 5. You can define multiple bindings for a single action, e.g., ["ctrl+j" "down"].
+ ;; The full list of configurable shortcuts is available at:
+ ;; https://github.com/logseq/logseq/blob/master/src/main/frontend/modules/shortcut/config.cljs
+ ;; Example:
+ ;; :shortcuts
+ ;; {:editor/new-block       "enter"
+ ;;  :editor/new-line        "shift+enter"
+ ;;  :editor/insert-link     "mod+shift+k"
+ ;;  :editor/highlight       false
+ ;;  :ui/toggle-settings     "t s"
+ ;;  :editor/up              ["ctrl+k" "up"]
+ ;;  :editor/down            ["ctrl+j" "down"]
+ ;;  :editor/left            ["ctrl+h" "left"]
+ ;;  :editor/right           ["ctrl+l" "right"]}
+ :shortcuts {}
+
+ ;; Configure the behavior of pressing Enter in document mode.
+ ;; if set to true, pressing Enter will create a new block.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ :shortcut/doc-mode-enter-for-new-block? false
+
+ ;; Block content larger than `block/content-max-length` will not be searchable
+ ;; or editable for performance.
+ ;; Default value: 10000
+ :block/content-max-length 10000
+
+ ;; Display command documentation on hover.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ :ui/show-command-doc? true
+
+ ;; Display empty bullet points.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ :ui/show-empty-bullets? false
+
+ ;; Pre-defined :view function to use with advanced queries.
+ :query/views
+ {:pprint
+  (fn [r] [:pre.code (pprint r)])}
+
+ ;; Advanced queries `:result-transform` function.
+ ;; Transform the query result before displaying it.
+ :query/result-transforms
+ {:sort-by-priority
+  (fn [result] (sort-by (fn [h] (get h :block/priority "Z")) result))}
+
+ ;; The following queries will be displayed at the bottom of today's journal page.
+ ;; The "NOW" query returns tasks with "NOW" or "DOING" status.
+ ;; The "NEXT" query returns tasks with "NOW", "LATER", or "TODO" status.
+ :default-queries
+ {:journals
+  [{:title "🔨 NOW"
+    :query [:find (pull ?h [*])
+            :in $ ?start ?today
+            :where
+            [?h :block/marker ?marker]
+            [(contains? #{"NOW" "DOING"} ?marker)]
+            [?h :block/page ?p]
+            [?p :block/journal? true]
+            [?p :block/journal-day ?d]
+            [(>= ?d ?start)]
+            [(<= ?d ?today)]]
+    :inputs [:14d :today]
+    :result-transform (fn [result]
+                        (sort-by (fn [h]
+                                   (get h :block/priority "Z")) result))
+    :group-by-page? false
+    :collapsed? false}
+   {:title "📅 NEXT"
+    :query [:find (pull ?h [*])
+            :in $ ?start ?next
+            :where
+            [?h :block/marker ?marker]
+            [(contains? #{"NOW" "LATER" "TODO"} ?marker)]
+            [?h :block/page ?p]
+            [?p :block/journal? true]
+            [?p :block/journal-day ?d]
+            [(> ?d ?start)]
+            [(< ?d ?next)]]
+    :inputs [:today :7d-after]
+    :group-by-page? false
+    :collapsed? false}]}
+
+ ;; Add custom commands to the command palette
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :commands
+ ;; [
+ ;;  ["js" "Javascript"]
+ ;;  ["md" "Markdown"]
+ ;;  ]
+ :commands []
+
+ ;; Enable collapsing blocks with titles but no children.
+ ;; By default, only blocks with children can be collapsed.
+ ;; Setting `:outliner/block-title-collapse-enabled?` to true allows collapsing
+ ;; blocks with titles (multiple lines) and content. For example:
+ ;; - block title
+ ;;   block content
+ ;; Default value: false
+ :outliner/block-title-collapse-enabled? false
+
+ ;; Macros replace texts and will make you more productive.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; Change the :macros value below to:
+ ;; {"poem" "Rose is $1, violet's $2. Life's ordered: Org assists you."}
+ ;; input "{{poem red,blue}}"
+ ;; becomes
+ ;; Rose is red, violet's blue. Life's ordered: Org assists you.
+ :macros {}
+
+ ;; Configure the default expansion level for linked references.
+ ;; For example, consider the following block hierarchy:
+ ;; - a [[page]] (level 1)
+ ;;   - b        (level 2)
+ ;;     - c      (level 3)
+ ;;       - d    (level 4)
+ ;;
+ ;; With the default value of level 2, block b will be collapsed.
+ ;; If the level's value is set to 3, block c will be collapsed.
+ ;; Default value: 2
+ :ref/default-open-blocks-level 2
+
+ ;; Configure the threshold for linked references before collapsing.
+ ;; Default value: 100
+ :ref/linked-references-collapsed-threshold 50
+
+ ;; Graph view configuration.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :graph/settings
+ ;; {:orphan-pages?   true   ; Default value: true
+ ;;  :builtin-pages?  false  ; Default value: false
+ ;;  :excluded-pages? false  ; Default value: false
+ ;;  :journal?        false} ; Default value: false
+
+ ;; Graph view configuration.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :graph/forcesettings
+ ;; {:link-dist       180    ; Default value: 180
+ ;;  :charge-strength -600   ; Default value: -600
+ ;;  :charge-range    600}   ; Default value: 600
+
+ ;; Favorites to list on the left sidebar
+ :favorites []
+
+ ;; Set flashcards interval.
+ ;; Expected value:
+ ;; - Float between 0 and 1
+ ;; higher values result in faster changes to the next review interval.
+ ;; Default value: 0.5
+ ;; :srs/learning-fraction 0.5
+
+ ;; Set the initial interval after the first successful review of a card.
+ ;; Default value: 4
+ ;; :srs/initial-interval 4
+
+ ;; Hide specific block properties.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :block-hidden-properties #{:public :icon}
+
+ ;; Create a page for all properties.
+ ;; Default value: true
+ :property-pages/enabled? true
+
+ ;; Properties to exclude from having property pages
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :property-pages/excludelist #{:duration :author}
+
+ ;; By default, property value separated by commas will not be treated as
+ ;; page references. You can add properties to enable it.
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :property/separated-by-commas #{:alias :tags}
+
+ ;; Properties that are ignored when parsing property values for references
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :ignored-page-references-keywords #{:author :website}
+
+ ;; logbook configuration.
+ ;; :logbook/settings
+ ;; {:with-second-support? false ;limit logbook to minutes, seconds will be eliminated
+ ;;  :enabled-in-all-blocks true ;display logbook in all blocks after timetracking
+ ;;  :enabled-in-timestamped-blocks false ;don't display logbook at all
+ ;; }
+
+ ;; Mobile photo upload configuration.
+ ;; :mobile/photo
+ ;; {:allow-editing? true
+ ;;  :quality        80}
+
+ ;; Mobile features options
+ ;; Gestures
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :mobile
+ ;; {:gestures/disabled-in-block-with-tags ["kanban"]}
+
+ ;; Extra CodeMirror options
+ ;; See https://codemirror.net/5/doc/manual.html#config for possible options
+ ;; Example usage:
+ ;; :editor/extra-codemirror-options
+ ;; {:lineWrapping  false  ; Default value: false
+ ;;  :lineNumbers   true   ; Default value: true
+ ;;  :readOnly      false} ; Default value: false
+
+ ;; Enable logical outdenting
+ ;; Default value: false
+ ;; :editor/logical-outdenting? false
+
+ ;; Prefer pasting the file when text and a file are in the clipboard.
+ ;; Default value: false
+ ;; :editor/preferred-pasting-file? false
+
+ ;; Quick capture templates for receiving content from other apps.
+ ;; Each template contains three elements {time}, {text} and {url}, which can be auto-expanded
+ ;; by receiving content from other apps. Note: the {} cannot be omitted.
+ ;; - {time}: capture time
+ ;; - {date}: capture date using current date format, use `[[{date}]]` to get a page reference
+ ;; - {text}: text that users selected before sharing.
+ ;; - {url}: URL or assets path for media files stored in Logseq.
+ ;; You can also reorder them or use only one or two of them in the template.
+ ;; You can also insert or format any text in the template, as shown in the following examples.
+ ;; :quick-capture-templates
+ ;; {:text "[[quick capture]] **{time}**: {text} from {url}"
+ ;;  :media "[[quick capture]] **{time}**: {url}"}
+
+ ;; Quick capture options.
+ ;; - insert-today?   Insert the capture at the end of today's journal page (boolean).
+ ;; - redirect-page?  Redirect to the quick capture page after capturing (boolean).
+ ;; - default-page    The default page to capture to if insert-today? is false (string).
+ ;; :quick-capture-options
+ ;; {:insert-today? false           ;; Default value: true
+ ;;  :redirect-page? false          ;; Default value: false
+ ;;  :default-page "quick capture"} ;; Default page: "quick capture"
+
+ ;; File sync options
+ ;; Ignore these files when syncing, regexp is supported.
+ ;; :file-sync/ignore-files []
+
+ ;; Configure the Enter key behavior for
+ ;; context-aware editing with DWIM (Do What I Mean).
+ ;; context-aware Enter key behavior implies that pressing Enter will
+ ;; have different outcomes based on the context.
+ ;; For instance, pressing Enter within a list generates a new list item,
+ ;; whereas pressing Enter in a block reference opens the referenced block.
+ ;; :dwim/settings
+ ;; {:admonition&src?  true        ;; Default value: true
+ ;;  :markup?          false       ;; Default value: false
+ ;;  :block-ref?       true        ;; Default value: true
+ ;;  :page-ref?        true        ;; Default value: true
+ ;;  :properties?      true        ;; Default value: true
+ ;;  :list?            false}      ;; Default value: false
+
+ ;; Configure the escaping method for special characters in page titles.
+ ;; Warning:
+ ;;   This is a dangerous operation. To modify the setting,
+ ;;   access the 'Filename format' setting and follow the instructions.
+ ;;   Otherwise, You may need to manually rename all affected files and
+ ;;   re-index them on all clients after synchronization.
+ ;;   Incorrect handling may result in messy page titles.
+ ;; Available options:
+ ;;   - :triple-lowbar (default)
+ ;;      ;use triple underscore `___` for slash `/` in page title
+ ;;      ;use Percent-encoding for other invalid characters
+ :file/name-format :triple-lowbar}
diff --git a/logseq/custom.css b/logseq/custom.css
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..e69de29
diff --git a/pages/About.md b/pages/About.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..967543f
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/About.md
@@ -0,0 +1,17 @@
+- This document was created using the 2023-2027 General Class Question Pool 2nd Errata
+  Issued April 15, 2023, downloaded from https://www.arrl.org/general-question-pool
+	- This is provided for the use of Hams who use (or would like to use!) Logseq for personal knowledge management, by AF0CX.
+	- conversion to Logseq markdown format was hobbled together with judicious use of `sed`and `grep`
+- Refer to the [[General Syllabus]] , which has links to Subelements, Sections and Questions.
+	- Example 1: [[SUBELEMENT G1]] for a subelement
+	- Example 2: [[G1A]] for a section in that subelement
+	- Example 3: [[G1A01]] for a question in that section
+- It is up to the person studying to embellish and take notes based on the links.
+	- for example, if you are studying and see something related to question [[G1A01]], you can simply link it or use a hashtag.
+	- You can further expand your knowledge by putting double brackets around terms or concepts that you want to define, such as [[MHz]] or [[Capacitance]].
+		- Hint: highlight words you want to study and then go to the linked page, and expand "unlinked references" to find questions that relate to that topic.
+	- As you progress, you will have a graph of meaningful links and relations that should provide you a strong basis for expanding your knowledge beyond "just passing" and understanding the material at a deeper level.
+- Questions retain the correct answer (A-D) in the header, as well as any references to other documents.
+	- When running through flash cards, try to remember what the correct answer is *before* revealing the answer.
+- Disclaimers
+	- This document is provided as-is and without any kind of warranty. I have attempted to make sure that it is error-free, but mistakes can happen. Use at your own risk.
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/pages/G0A.md b/pages/G0A.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..07c1833
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G0A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
+
+- [[G0A01]] (A)
+What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue? #card
+	- A. It heats body tissue
+	- B. It causes radiation poisoning
+	- C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
+	- D. It cools body tissue
+- [[G0A02]] (D)
+Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal? #card
+	- A. Its duty cycle
+	- B. Its frequency
+	- C. Its power density
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)]
+How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? #card
+	- A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. By calculation based on computer modeling
+	- C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A04]] (D)
+What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure? #card
+	- A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
+	- B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
+	- C. The total time of the exposure
+	- D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period
+- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)]
+What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption? #card
+	- A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
+	- B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
+	- C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)]
+What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria? #card
+	- A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
+	- B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
+	- C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
+	- D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter
+- [[G0A07]] (A)
+What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure? #card
+	- A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
+	- C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
+	- D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements
+- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)]
+Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations? #card
+	- A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
+	- B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
+	- C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A09]] (B)
+What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength? #card
+	- A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
+	- B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
+	- C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
+	- D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator
+- [[G0A10]] (C)
+What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna? #card
+	- A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
+	- B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
+	- C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0A11]] (C)
+What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna? #card
+	- A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
+	- B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
+	- C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
+	- D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded
+- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)]
+What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure? #card
+	- A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
+	- B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
+	- C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
+	- D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt
diff --git a/pages/G0B.md b/pages/G0B.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G0B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,80 @@
+G0B – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety
+
+- [[G0B01]] (A)
+Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers? #card
+	- A. Only the hot wires
+	- B. Only the neutral wire
+	- C. Only the ground wire
+	- D. All wires
+- [[G0B02]] (C)
+According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker? #card
+	- A. AWG number 20
+	- B. AWG number 16
+	- C. AWG number 12
+	- D. AWG number 8
+- [[G0B03]] (D)
+Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring? #card
+	- A. 30 amperes
+	- B. 25 amperes
+	- C. 20 amperes
+	- D. 15 amperes
+- [[G0B04]] (B)
+Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located? #card
+	- A. As close to the station equipment as possible
+	- B. Outside the building
+	- C. Next to the closest power pole
+	- D. Parallel to the water supply line
+- [[G0B05]] (B)
+Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power? #card
+	- A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
+	- B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
+	- C. Overvoltage on the hot wires
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0B06]] (C)
+Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code? #card
+	- A. Acceptable bandwidth limits
+	- B. Acceptable modulation limits
+	- C. Electrical safety of the station
+	- D. RF exposure limits of the human body
+- [[G0B07]] (B)
+Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness? #card
+	- A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand
+	- B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
+	- C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0B08]] (B)
+What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices? #card
+	- A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
+	- B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
+	- C. Unground the base of the tower
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0B09]] (A)
+Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation? #card
+	- A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
+	- B. The generator must be insulated from ground
+	- C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G0B10]] (A)
+Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder? #card
+	- A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
+	- B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
+	- C. Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
+	- D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas
+- [[G0B11]] (D)
+Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods? #card
+	- A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
+	- B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
+	- C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
+	- D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds
+- [[G0B12]] (C)
+What is the purpose of a power supply interlock? #card
+	- A. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty
+	- B. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
+	- C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
+	- D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced
+- [[G0B13]] (A)
+Where should lightning arrestors be located? #card
+	- A. Where the feed lines enter the building
+	- B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point
+	- C. In series with each ground lead
+	- D. At the closest power pole ground electrode
diff --git a/pages/G1A.md b/pages/G1A.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..5e7b5d8
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G1A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G1A – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
+
+- [[G1A01]] (C) [97.301(d)]
+On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit? #card
+	- A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
+	- B. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
+	- C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
+	- D. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters
+- [[G1A02]] (B) [97.305]
+On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? #card
+	- A. 160 meters
+	- B. 30 meters
+	- C. 17 meters
+	- D. 12 meters
+- [[G1A03]] (B) [97.305]
+On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? #card
+	- A. 160 meters
+	- B. 30 meters
+	- C. 20 meters
+	- D. 12 meters
+- [[G1A04]] (D) [97.303(h)]
+Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? #card
+	- A. 11 meters
+	- B. 12 meters
+	- C. 30 meters
+	- D. 60 meters
+- [[G1A05]] (A) [97.301(d)]
+On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator? #card
+	- A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
+	- B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
+	- C. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
+	- D. All of the above
+- [[G1A06]] (C) [97.303]
+Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band? #card
+	- A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
+	- B. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
+	- C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
+	- D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band
+- [[G1A07]] (D) [97.305(a)]
+On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions? #card
+	- A. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
+	- B. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
+	- C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
+	- D. The entire band
+- [[G1A08]] (B) [97.301(b)]
+Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees? #card
+	- A. All HF bands
+	- B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
+	- C. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
+	- D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
+- [[G1A09]] (C) [97.301(d)]
+Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band? #card
+	- A. 14250 kHz
+	- B. 18155 kHz
+	- C. 21300 kHz
+	- D. 24900 kHz
+- [[G1A10]] (D) [97.205(b)]
+What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use? #card
+	- A. The entire band
+	- B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
+	- C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
+	- D. The portion above 29.5 MHz
+- [[G1A11]] (B) [97.301]
+When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them? #card
+	- A. The lower frequency portion
+	- B. The upper frequency portion
+	- C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
+	- D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
diff --git a/pages/G1B.md b/pages/G1B.md
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index 0000000..66aae22
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G1B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
+
+- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)]
+What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC? #card
+	- A. 50 feet
+	- B. 100 feet
+	- C. 200 feet
+	- D. 250 feet
+- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)]
+With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? #card
+	- A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
+	- B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
+	- C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)]
+Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules? #card
+	- A. Observation of propagation and reception
+	- B. Automatic identification of repeaters
+	- C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)]
+Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations? #card
+	- A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
+	- B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
+	- C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
+	- D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act
+- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)]
+Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted? #card
+	- A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
+	- B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
+	- C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)]
+Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures? #card
+	- A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
+	- B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
+	- C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
+	- D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity
+- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)]
+What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? #card
+	- A. Only “Q” signals are permitted
+	- B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
+	- C. They are not permitted
+	- D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules
+- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)]
+When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission? #card
+	- A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
+	- B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
+	- C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+	- D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country
+- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)]
+On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted? #card
+	- A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
+	- B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
+	- C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
+	- D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz
+- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)]
+What is the power limit for beacon stations? #card
+	- A. 10 watts PEP output
+	- B. 20 watts PEP output
+	- C. 100 watts PEP output
+	- D. 200 watts PEP output
+- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)]
+Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? #card
+	- A. The FCC
+	- B. The control operator
+	- C. The IEEE
+	- D. The ITU
diff --git a/pages/G1C.md b/pages/G1C.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..7f77550
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G1C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G1C – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements
+
+- [[G1C01]] (A) [97.313(c)(1)]
+What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? #card
+	- A. 200 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. 2000 watts PEP output
+- [[G1C02]] (C) [97.313]
+What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band? #card
+	- A. 50 watts PEP output
+	- B. 200 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole
+- [[G1C03]] (A) [97.303(h)(1)]
+What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band? #card
+	- A. 2.8 kHz
+	- B. 5.6 kHz
+	- C. 1.8 kHz
+	- D. 3 kHz
+- [[G1C04]] (A) [97.303(i)]
+Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band? #card
+	- A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
+	- B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
+	- C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
+	- D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used
+- [[G1C05]] (C) [97.313]
+What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator? #card
+	- A. 100 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1500 watts PEP output
+	- D. 2000 watts PEP output
+- [[G1C06]] (D) [97.313]
+What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band? #card
+	- A. 200 watts PEP output
+	- B. 1000 watts PEP output
+	- C. 1200 watts PEP output
+	- D. 1500 watts PEP output
+- [[G1C07]] (C) [97.309(a)(4)]
+What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air? 
+	- A. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
+	- B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
+	- C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
+	- D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique
+- [[G1C08]] (D) [97.307(f)(3)]
+What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? #card
+	- A. 56 kilobaud
+	- B. 19.6 kilobaud
+	- C. 1200 baud
+	- D. 300 baud
+- [[G1C09]] (C) [97.313(i)]
+What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band? #card
+	- A. 1500 watts PEP
+	- B. 10 watts RMS
+	- C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
+	- D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna
+- [[G1C10]] (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)]
+What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band? #card
+	- A. 56 kilobaud
+	- B. 19.6 kilobaud
+	- C. 1200 baud
+	- D. 300 baud
+- [[G1C11]] (D) [97.313]
+What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power? #card
+	- A. RMS output from the transmitter
+	- B. RMS input to the antenna
+	- C. PEP input to the antenna
+	- D. PEP output from the transmitter
diff --git a/pages/G1D.md b/pages/G1D.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..c5ad676
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G1D.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
+
+- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)]
+Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license? #card
+	- A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
+	- B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
+	- C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
+	- D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license
+- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)]
+What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license? #card
+	- A. General and Technician
+	- B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
+	- C. Technician only
+	- D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician
+- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges? #card
+	- A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
+	- B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
+	- C. On any General or Technician class band segment
+	- D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters
+- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)]
+Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination? #card
+	- A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
+	- C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
+	- D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class
+- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7]
+When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator? #card
+	- A. A US operator/primary station license
+	- B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+	- C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
+	- D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC
+- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)]
+Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign? #card
+	- A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
+	- B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
+	- C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
+	- D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC
+- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)]
+Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? #card
+	- A. The Federal Communications Commission
+	- B. The Universal Licensing System
+	- C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
+	- D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau
+- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)]
+Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? #card
+	- A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
+	- B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
+	- C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
+	- D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner
+- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)]
+How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit? #card
+	- A. 30 days
+	- B. 180 days
+	- C. 365 days
+	- D. For as long as your current license is valid
+- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)]
+What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? #card
+	- A. 16 years
+	- B. 18 years
+	- C. 21 years
+	- D. There is no age limit
+- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505]
+What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed? #card
+	- A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
+	- B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
+	- C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
+	- D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam
+- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507]
+When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply? #card
+	- A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC
+	- B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations
+	- C. Only those of the remote station’s country
+	- D. Only those of the FCC
diff --git a/pages/G1E.md b/pages/G1E.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..8f7b41c
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G1E.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G1E – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
+
+- [[G1E01]] (A) [97.115(b)(2)]
+Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station? #card
+	- A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
+	- B. The third party is not a US citizen
+	- C. The third party is speaking in a language other than English
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1E02]] (D) [97.205(b)]
+When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator? #card
+	- A. Under no circumstances
+	- B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
+	- C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
+	- D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license
+- [[G1E03]] (A) [97.221]
+What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments? #card
+	- A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
+	- B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
+	- C. No third-party traffic may be transmitted
+	- D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license 
+- [[G1E04]] (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)]
+Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? #card
+	- A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
+	- B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
+	- C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G1E05]] (C) [97.115(a)(2), 97.117]
+What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement? #card
+	- A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
+	- B. They must be for other licensed amateurs
+	- C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
+	- D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log
+- [[G1E06]] (C) [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations]
+The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America? #card
+	- A. Region 4
+	- B. Region 3
+	- C. Region 2
+	- D. Region 1
+- [[G1E07]] (D) [97.111]
+In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations? #card
+	- A. Anywhere in the band
+	- B. Channels 1 through 4
+	- C. Channels 42 through 45
+	- D. No part
+- [[G1E08]] (B) [97.313(j)]
+What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions? #card
+	- A. 100 milliwatts
+	- B. 10 watts
+	- C. 100 watts
+	- D. 1500 watts
+- [[G1E09]] (A) [97.115]
+Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication? #card
+	- A. Under no circumstances
+	- B. When messages are encrypted
+	- C. When messages are not encrypted
+	- D. When under automatic control
+- [[G1E10]] (A) [97.101]
+Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz? #card
+	- A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
+	- B. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies 
+	- C. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
+	- D. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC
+- [[G1E11]] (D) [97.221, 97.305]
+On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations? #card
+	- A. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
+	- B. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
+	- C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
+	- D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands
+- [[G1E12]] (A) [97.115]
+When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control? #card
+	- A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
+	- B. Under no circumstances except for emergencies
+	- C. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
+	- D. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC
diff --git a/pages/G2A.md b/pages/G2A.md
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+G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations
+
+- [[G2A01]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? #card
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A02]] (B)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? #card
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A03]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? #card
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A04]] (A)
+Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands? #card
+	- A. Upper sideband
+	- B. Lower sideband
+	- C. Suppressed sideband
+	- D. Double sideband
+- [[G2A05]] (C)
+Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? #card
+	- A. Frequency modulation
+	- B. Double sideband
+	- C. Single sideband
+	- D. Single phase modulation
+- [[G2A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? #card
+	- A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation
+	- B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
+	- C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
+	- D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency
+- [[G2A07]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)? #card
+	- A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
+	- B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
+	- C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
+	- D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands
+- [[G2A08]] (B)
+What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact? #card
+	- A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
+	- B. Say your call sign once
+	- C. Say “Breaker Breaker”
+	- D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station
+- [[G2A09]] (D)
+Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? #card
+	- A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
+	- B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
+	- C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
+	- D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice
+- [[G2A10]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation? #card
+	- A. The received signal is more natural sounding
+	- B. It allows “hands free” operation
+	- C. It occupies less bandwidth
+	- D. It provides more power output
+- [[G2A11]] (C)
+Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”? #card
+	- A. Any caller is welcome to respond
+	- B. Only stations in Germany
+	- C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
+	- D. Only contest stations
+- [[G2A12]] (B)
+What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver? #card
+	- A. RF clipping level
+	- B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
+	- C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
+	- D. Attenuator level
diff --git a/pages/G2B.md b/pages/G2B.md
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+++ b/pages/G2B.md
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+G2B – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation
+
+- [[G2B01]] (C) [97.101(b), (c)]
+Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies? #card
+	- A. Nets have priority
+	- B. QSOs in progress have priority
+	- C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
+	- D. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies
+- [[G2B02]] (B)
+What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? #card
+	- A. Inform your local emergency coordinator
+	- B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
+	- C. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
+	- D. Immediately cease all transmissions
+- [[G2B03]] (C)
+What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency? #card
+	- A. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
+	- B. Decrease power and continue to transmit
+	- C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
+	- D. Switch to the opposite sideband
+- [[G2B04]] (B)
+When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? #card
+	- A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
+	- B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
+	- C. 1 kHz to 3 kHz
+	- D. 3 kHz to 6 kHz
+- [[G2B05]] (C)
+When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? #card
+	- A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz
+	- B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz
+	- C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz
+	- D. Approximately 6 kHz
+- [[G2B06]] (A)
+How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone? #card
+	- A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
+	- B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
+	- C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
+	- D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response
+- [[G2B07]] (C)
+Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call? #card
+	- A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
+	- B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
+	- C. Follow the voluntary band plan
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2B08]] (A)
+What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment? #card
+	- A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
+	- B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
+	- C. Only digital contacts
+	- D. Only SSTV contacts
+- [[G2B09]] (A) [97.407(a)]
+Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster? #card
+	- A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
+	- B. Only a RACES net control operator
+	- C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
+	- D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational
+- [[G2B10]] (B)
+Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management? #card
+	- A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
+	- B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
+	- C. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2B11]] (C) [97.407(d)(4)]
+How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization? #card
+	- A. No more than 1 hour per month
+	- B. No more than 2 hours per month
+	- C. No more than 1 hour per week
+	- D. No more than 2 hours per week
diff --git a/pages/G2C.md b/pages/G2C.md
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+G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in
+
+- [[G2C01]] (D)
+Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)? #card
+	- A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
+	- B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
+	- C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
+	- D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements
+- [[G2C02]] (A)
+What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. Change frequency
+	- C. Increase your power
+	- D. Repeat everything twice
+- [[G2C03]] (C)
+What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission? #card
+	- A. No US stations should call
+	- B. Operating full break-in
+	- C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
+	- D. Closing station now
+- [[G2C04]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean? #card
+	- A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?”
+	- B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
+	- C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
+	- D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”
+- [[G2C05]] (B)
+What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code? #card
+	- A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
+	- B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
+	- C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
+	- D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm
+- [[G2C06]] (D)
+What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation? #card
+	- A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
+	- B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
+	- C. Sending without error
+	- D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal
+- [[G2C07]] (A)
+When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report? #card
+	- A. Chirpy or unstable signal
+	- B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
+	- C. 100 percent copy
+	- D. Key clicks
+- [[G2C08]] (C)
+What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? #card
+	- A. SK
+	- B. BK
+	- C. AR
+	- D. KN
+- [[G2C09]] (C)
+What does the Q signal “QSL” mean? #card
+	- A. Send slower
+	- B. We have already confirmed the contact
+	- C. I have received and understood
+	- D. We have worked before
+- [[G2C10]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRN” mean? #card
+	- A. Send more slowly
+	- B. Stop sending
+	- C. Zero beat my signal
+	- D. I am troubled by static
+- [[G2C11]] (D)
+What does the Q signal “QRV” mean? #card
+	- A. You are sending too fast
+	- B. There is interference on the frequency
+	- C. I am quitting for the day
+	- D. I am ready to receive
diff --git a/pages/G2D.md b/pages/G2D.md
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+G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations
+
+- [[G2D01]] (A)
+What is the Volunteer Monitor Program? #card
+	- A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
+	- B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
+	- C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
+	- D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency
+- [[G2D02]] (D)
+Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program? #card
+	- A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
+	- B. To provide emergency and public safety communications
+	- C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
+	- D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
+- [[G2D03]] (B)
+What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area? #card
+	- A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
+	- B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
+	- C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2D04]] (B)
+Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? #card
+	- A. A map that shows accurate land masses
+	- B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
+	- C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
+	- D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit
+- [[G2D05]] (C)
+Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station? #card
+	- C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
+- [[G2D06]] (C)
+How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station? #card
+	- A. Toward the rising sun
+	- B. Along the gray line
+	- C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
+	- D. Toward the north
+- [[G2D07]] (D)
+Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet? #card
+	- A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
+	- B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
+	- C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
+	- D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta
+- [[G2D08]] (D)
+Why do many amateurs keep a station log? #card
+	- A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
+	- B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
+	- C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
+	- D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station
+- [[G2D09]] (C)
+Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies? #card
+	- A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
+	- B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
+	- C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2D10]] (B)
+What is QRP operation? #card
+	- A. Remote piloted model control
+	- B. Low-power transmit operation
+	- C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
+	- D. Traffic relay procedure net operation
+- [[G2D11]] (A)
+Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact? #card
+	- A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions
+	- B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs
+	- C. To follow standard radiogram structure
+	- D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display
diff --git a/pages/G2E.md b/pages/G2E.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G2E.md
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+G2E – Digital mode operating procedures
+
+- [[G2E01]] (D)
+Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter? #card
+	- A. USB
+	- B. DSB
+	- C. CW
+	- D. LSB
+- [[G2E02]] (B)
+What is VARA? #card
+	- A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
+	- B. A digital protocol used with Winlink
+	- C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
+	- D.A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios
+- [[G2E03]] (D)
+What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission? #card
+	- A. Frequent retries or timeouts
+	- B. Long pauses in message transmission
+	- C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2E04]] (D)
+Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8? #card
+	- A. Always call on the station’s frequency
+	- B. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency
+	- C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
+	- D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station
+- [[G2E05]] (B)
+What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK? #card
+	- A. LSB
+	- B. USB
+	- C. DSB
+	- D. SSB
+- [[G2E06]] (B)
+What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? #card
+	- A. 85 Hz
+	- B. 170 Hz
+	- C. 425 Hz
+	- D. 850 Hz
+- [[G2E07]] (B)
+Which of the following is required when using FT8? #card
+	- A. A special hardware modem
+	- B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
+	- C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
+	- D. A vertically polarized antenna
+- [[G2E08]] (D)
+In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found? #card
+	- A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
+	- B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
+	- C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
+	- D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz
+- [[G2E09]] (C)
+How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol? #card
+	- A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
+	- B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
+	- C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
+	- D. Send a NAK code
+- [[G2E10]] (D)
+Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station? #card
+	- A. Send an email to the system control operator
+	- B. Send QRL in Morse code
+	- C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
+	- D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency
+- [[G2E11]] (C)
+What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network? #card
+	- A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
+	- B. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
+	- C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
+	- D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers
+- [[G2E12]] (D)
+Which of the following describes Winlink? #card
+	- A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
+	- B. A form of Packet Radio
+	- C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
+	- D. All of the above
+- [[G2E13]] (B)
+What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server? #card
+	- A. Terminal Node Controller
+	- B. Gateway
+	- C. RJ-45
+	- D. Printer/Server
+- [[G2E14]] (D)
+What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly? #card
+	- A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
+	- B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
+	- C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G2E15]] (C)
+Which of the following is a common location for FT8? #card
+	- A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
+	- B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
+	- C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
+	- D. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz
diff --git a/pages/G3A.md b/pages/G3A.md
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+G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices
+
+- [[G3A01]] (A)
+How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation? #card
+	- A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
+	- B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
+	- C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
+	- D. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions
+- [[G3A02]] (B)
+What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation? #card
+	- A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
+	- B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
+	- C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
+	- D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected
+- [[G3A03]] (C)
+Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth? #card
+	- A. 28 days
+	- B. 1 to 2 hours
+	- C. 8 minutes
+	- D. 20 to 40 hours
+- [[G3A04]] (D)
+Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity? #card
+	- A. 80 meters and 160 meters
+	- B. 60 meters and 40 meters
+	- C. 30 meters and 20 meters
+	- D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters
+- [[G3A05]] (D)
+What is the solar flux index? #card
+	- A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
+	- B. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
+	- C. Another name for the American sunspot number
+	- D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters
+- [[G3A06]] (D)
+What is a geomagnetic storm? #card
+	- A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index
+	- B. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
+	- C. Ripples in the geomagnetic force
+	- D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field
+- [[G3A07]] (D)
+At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? #card
+	- A. At the summer solstice
+	- B. Only at the maximum point
+	- C. Only at the minimum point
+	- D. At any point
+- [[G3A08]] (D)
+How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation? #card
+	- A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation
+	- B. Degrade ground wave propagation
+	- C. Improve ground wave propagation
+	- D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation
+- [[G3A09]] (A)
+How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications? #card
+	- A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
+	- B. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
+	- C. Improve HF long path propagation
+	- D. Reduce long delayed echoes
+- [[G3A10]] (C)
+What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle? #card
+	- A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
+	- B. Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts
+	- C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis
+	- D. The position of the Moon in its orbit
+- [[G3A11]] (D)
+How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth? #card
+	- A. 28 days
+	- B. 14 days
+	- C. 4 to 8 minutes
+	- D. 15 hours to several days
+- [[G3A12]] (B)
+What does the K-index measure? #card
+	- A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
+	- B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
+	- C. The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field
+	- D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
+- [[G3A13]] (C)
+What does the A-index measure? #card
+	- A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
+	- B. The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field
+	- C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field
+	- D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado
+- [[G3A14]] (B)
+How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes? #card
+	- A. HF communication is improved
+	- B. HF communication is disturbed
+	- C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved
+	- D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed
diff --git a/pages/G3B.md b/pages/G3B.md
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+G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction
+
+- [[G3B01]] (D)
+What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation? #card
+	- A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
+	- B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB
+	- C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
+	- D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard
+- [[G3B02]] (D)
+What factors affect the MUF? #card
+	- A. Path distance and location
+	- B. Time of day and season
+	- C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G3B03]] (A)
+Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation? #card
+	- A. Just below the MUF
+	- B. Just above the LUF
+	- C. Just below the critical frequency
+	- D. Just above the critical frequency
+- [[G3B04]] (A)
+Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station? #card
+	- A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
+	- B. Check the A-index
+	- C. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G3B05]] (A)
+How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF? #card
+	- A. They are refracted back to Earth
+	- B. They pass through the ionosphere
+	- C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
+	- D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
+- [[G3B06]] (C)
+What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF? #card
+	- A. They are refracted back to Earth
+	- B. They pass through the ionosphere
+	- C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination
+	- D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth
+- [[G3B07]] (A)
+What does LUF stand for? #card
+	- A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
+	- B. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
+	- C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+	- D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes
+- [[G3B08]] (B)
+What does MUF stand for? #card
+	- A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
+	- B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
+	- C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+	- D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
+- [[G3B09]] (C)
+What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? #card
+	- A. 180 miles
+	- B. 1,200 miles
+	- C. 2,500 miles
+	- D. 12,000 miles
+- [[G3B10]] (B)
+What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region? #card
+	- A. 180 miles
+	- B. 1,200 miles
+	- C. 2,500 miles
+	- D. 12,000 miles
+- [[G3B11]] (A)
+What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF? #card
+	- A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
+	- B. HF communications over the path are enhanced
+	- C. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
+	- D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced
+- [[G3B12]] (D)
+Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer? #card
+	- A. Poor propagation at any time of day
+	- B. World-wide propagation during daylight hours
+	- C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
+	- D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static
diff --git a/pages/G3C.md b/pages/G3C.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G3C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)
+
+- [[G3C01]] (A)
+Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth? #card
+	- A. The D region
+	- B. The E region
+	- C. The F1 region
+	- D. The F2 region
+- [[G3C02]] (A)
+What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle? #card
+	- A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
+	- C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
+	- D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB
+- [[G3C03]] (C)
+Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions? #card
+	- A. Because it is the densest
+	- B. Because of the Doppler effect
+	- C. Because it is the highest
+	- D. Because of temperature inversions
+- [[G3C04]] (D)
+What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation? #card
+	- A. The long path azimuth of a distant station
+	- B. The short path azimuth of a distant station
+	- C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+	- D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
+- [[G3C05]] (C)
+Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day? #card
+	- A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours
+	- C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
+	- D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours
+- [[G3C06]] (B)
+What is a characteristic of HF scatter? #card
+	- A. Phone signals have high intelligibility
+	- B. Signals have a fluttering sound
+	- C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
+	- D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night
+- [[G3C07]] (D)
+What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? #card
+	- A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable
+	- B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
+	- C. The E region is not present
+	- D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths
+- [[G3C08]] (A)
+Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? #card
+	- A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
+	- B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
+	- C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
+	- D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy
+- [[G3C09]] (B)
+What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone? #card
+	- A. Faraday rotation
+	- B. Scatter
+	- C. Chordal hop
+	- D. Short-path
+- [[G3C10]] (B)
+What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation? #card
+	- A. Propagation near the MUF
+	- B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
+	- C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
+	- D. Double hop propagation near the LUF
+- [[G3C11]] (D)
+Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours? #card
+	- A. The F2 region
+	- B. The F1 region
+	- C. The E region
+	- D. The D region
diff --git a/pages/G4A.md b/pages/G4A.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G4A.md
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+G4A – Station configuration and operation
+
+- [[G4A01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers? #card
+	- A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
+	- B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
+	- C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
+	- D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies
+- [[G4A02]] (C)
+What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW? #card
+	- A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
+	- B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
+	- C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
+	- D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented
+- [[G4A03]] (C)
+How does a noise blanker work? #card
+	- A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
+	- B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
+	- C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
+	- D. By clipping noise peaks
+- [[G4A04]] (B)
+What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control? #card
+	- A. A pronounced peak
+	- B. A pronounced dip
+	- C. No change will be observed
+	- D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation
+- [[G4A05]] (C)
+Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier? #card
+	- A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
+	- B. To reduce harmonic radiation
+	- C. To prevent excessive drive
+	- D. To increase overall efficiency
+- [[G4A06]] (C)
+What is the purpose of an antenna tuner? #card
+	- A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
+	- B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
+	- C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4A07]] (A)
+What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased? #card
+	- A. Received signals may become distorted
+	- B. Received frequency may become unstable
+	- C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
+	- D. Received frequency may shift several kHz
+- [[G4A08]] (D)
+What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? #card
+	- A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
+	- B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
+	- C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
+	- D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current
+- [[G4A09]] (C)
+What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier? #card
+	- A. To prevent key clicks on CW
+	- B. To prevent transient overmodulation
+	- C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
+	- D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level
+- [[G4A10]] (B)
+What is the function of an electronic keyer? #card
+	- A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
+	- B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
+	- C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
+	- D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation
+- [[G4A11]] (B)
+Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals? #card
+	- A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
+	- B. The ALC action distorts the signal
+	- C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4A12]] (C)
+Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver? #card
+	- A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
+	- C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
+	- D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation
+- [[G4A13]] (A)
+What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator? #card
+	- A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
+	- B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
+	- C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
+	- D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals
diff --git a/pages/G4B.md b/pages/G4B.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G4B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,80 @@
+G4B – Tests and test equipment
+
+- [[G4B01]] (D)
+What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? #card
+	- A. An ohmmeter
+	- B. A signal generator
+	- C. An ammeter
+	- D. An oscilloscope
+- [[G4B02]] (D)
+Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter? #card
+	- A. An oscilloscope uses less power
+	- B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
+	- C. Greater precision
+	- D. Complex waveforms can be measured
+- [[G4B03]] (A)
+Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter? #card
+	- A. An oscilloscope
+	- B. A field strength meter
+	- C. A sidetone monitor
+	- D. A wavemeter
+- [[G4B04]] (D)
+What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal? #card
+	- A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
+	- B. An external RF oscillator
+	- C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
+	- D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter
+- [[G4B05]] (D)
+Why do voltmeters have high input impedance? #card
+	- A. It improves the frequency response
+	- B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
+	- C. It improves the resolution of the readings
+	- D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured
+- [[G4B06]] (C)
+What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter? #card
+	- A. Better for measuring computer circuits
+	- B. Less prone to overload
+	- C. Higher precision
+	- D. Faster response
+- [[G4B07]] (B)
+What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? #card
+	- A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
+	- B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
+	- C. Two swept frequency tones
+	- D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude
+- [[G4B08]] (A)
+What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze? #card
+	- A. Linearity
+	- B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
+	- C. Percentage of frequency modulation
+	- D. Percentage of carrier phase shift
+- [[G4B09]] (D)
+When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter? #card
+	- A. When testing logic circuits
+	- B. When high precision is desired
+	- C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
+	- D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values
+- [[G4B10]] (A)
+Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter? #card
+	- A. Standing wave ratio
+	- B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
+	- C. RF interference
+	- D. Radio wave propagation
+- [[G4B11]] (C)
+Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements? #card
+	- A. Receiver
+	- B. Transmitter
+	- C. Antenna and feed line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4B12]] (B)
+What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer? #card
+	- A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
+	- B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings
+	- C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4B13]] (C)
+Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer? #card
+	- A. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
+	- B. Power output from a transmitter
+	- C. Impedance of coaxial cable
+	- D. Gain of a directional antenna
diff --git a/pages/G4C.md b/pages/G4C.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G4C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding
+
+- [[G4C01]] (B)
+Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits? #card
+	- A. Bypass inductor
+	- B. Bypass capacitor
+	- C. Forward-biased diode
+	- D. Reverse-biased diode
+- [[G4C02]] (C)
+Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? #card
+	- A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
+	- B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
+	- C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
+	- D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna
+- [[G4C03]] (C)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter? #card
+	- A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
+	- B. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- C. Distorted speech
+	- D. Clearly audible speech
+- [[G4C04]] (A)
+What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter? #card
+	- A. On-and-off humming or clicking
+	- B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
+	- C. A chirpy CW signal
+	- D. Severely distorted audio
+- [[G4C05]] (D)
+What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns? #card
+	- A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
+	- C. The ground rod is resonant
+	- D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency
+- [[G4C06]] (C)
+What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection? #card
+	- A. Overheating of ground straps
+	- B. Corrosion of the ground rod
+	- C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
+	- D. A ground loop
+- [[G4C07]] (A)
+Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections? #card
+	- A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
+	- B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
+	- C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4C08]] (A)
+Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? #card
+	- A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable
+	- B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
+	- C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
+	- D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable
+- [[G4C09]] (D)
+How can the effects of ground loops be minimized? #card
+	- A. Connect all ground conductors in series
+	- B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
+	- C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
+	- D. Bond equipment enclosures together
+- [[G4C10]] (A)
+What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections? #card
+	- A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
+	- B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
+	- C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
+	- D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station
+- [[G4C11]] (C)
+What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station? #card
+	- A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
+	- B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
+	- C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
+	- D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines
+- [[G4C12]] (D)
+Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded? #card
+	- A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
+	- B. It prevents signal overload
+	- C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
+	- D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis
diff --git a/pages/G4D.md b/pages/G4D.md
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+++ b/pages/G4D.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
+
+- [[G4D01]] (A)
+What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver? #card
+	- A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
+	- B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
+	- C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
+	- D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation
+- [[G4D02]] (B)
+How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal? #card
+	- A. It increases peak power
+	- B. It increases average power
+	- C. It reduces harmonic distortion
+	- D. It reduces intermodulation distortion
+- [[G4D03]] (D)
+What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor? #card
+	- A. Distorted speech
+	- B. Excess intermodulation products
+	- C. Excessive background noise
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4D04]] (C)
+What does an S meter measure? #card
+	- A. Carrier suppression
+	- B. Impedance
+	- C. Received signal strength
+	- D. Transmitter power output
+- [[G4D05]] (D)
+How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter? #card
+	- A. It is 10 times less powerful
+	- B. It is 20 times less powerful
+	- C. It is 20 times more powerful
+	- D. It is 100 times more powerful
+- [[G4D06]] (A)
+How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit? #card
+	- A. 6 dB
+	- B. 12 dB
+	- C. 15 dB
+	- D. 18 dB
+- [[G4D07]] (C)
+How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9? #card
+	- A. Approximately 1.5 times
+	- B. Approximately 2 times
+	- C. Approximately 4 times
+	- D. Approximately 8 times
+- [[G4D08]] (C)
+What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz? #card
+	- A. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
+	- B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
+	- C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
+	- D. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz
+- [[G4D09]] (B)
+What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? #card
+	- A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
+	- B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
+	- C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
+	- D. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz
+- [[G4D10]] (A)
+How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB? #card
+	- A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
+	- B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
+	- C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
+	- D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
+- [[G4D11]] (B)
+How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB? #card
+	- A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
+	- B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
+	- C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
+	- D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
diff --git a/pages/G4E.md b/pages/G4E.md
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index 0000000..e8ab4c3
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+++ b/pages/G4E.md
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+G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation
+
+- [[G4E01]] (C)
+What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna? #card
+	- A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
+	- B. To reduce radiation resistance
+	- C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
+	- D. To lower the radiation angle
+- [[G4E02]] (D)
+What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna? #card
+	- A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
+	- B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna
+	- C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
+	- D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting
+- [[G4E03]] (A)
+Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation? #card
+	- A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
+	- B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
+	- C. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
+	- D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
+- [[G4E04]] (B)
+Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket? #card
+	- A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
+	- B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
+	- C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
+	- D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat
+- [[G4E05]] (C)
+Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation? #card
+	- A. “Picket fencing”
+	- B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
+	- C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
+	- D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band
+- [[G4E06]] (C)
+What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna? #card
+	- A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
+	- B. Q of the antenna will be very low
+	- C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
+	- D. Harmonic radiation may increase
+- [[G4E07]] (D)
+Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle? #card
+	- A. The battery charging system
+	- B. The fuel delivery system
+	- C. The control computers
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G4E08]] (A)
+In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together? #card
+	- A. Series-parallel
+	- B. Shunt
+	- C. Bypass
+	- D. Full-wave bridge
+- [[G4E09]] (B)
+What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? #card
+	- A. 0.02 VDC
+	- B. 0.5 VDC
+	- C. 0.2 VDC
+	- D. 1.38 VDC
+- [[G4E10]] (B)
+Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel? #card
+	- A. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
+	- B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
+	- C. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
+	- D. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels
+- [[G4E11]] (D)
+What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery? #card
+	- A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
+	- B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
+	- C. A series resistor must be in place
+	- D. The solar panel must have a charge controller
diff --git a/pages/G5A.md b/pages/G5A.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G5A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance
+
+- [[G5A01]] (C)
+What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit? #card
+	- A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high
+	- B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
+	- C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low
+	- D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance
+- [[G5A02]] (B)
+What is reactance? #card
+	- A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
+	- B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
+	- C. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
+	- D. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
+- [[G5A03]] (D)
+Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor? #card
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Reluctance
+	- C. Admittance
+	- D. Reactance
+- [[G5A04]] (C)
+Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor? #card
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Reluctance
+	- C. Reactance
+	- D. Admittance
+- [[G5A05]] (D)
+How does an inductor react to AC? #card
+	- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+- [[G5A06]] (A)
+How does a capacitor react to AC? #card
+	- A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+	- B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
+	- D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
+- [[G5A07]] (D)
+What is the term for the inverse of impedance? #card
+	- A. Conductance
+	- B. Susceptance
+	- C. Reluctance
+	- D. Admittance
+- [[G5A08]] (C)
+What is impedance? #card
+	- A. The ratio of current to voltage
+	- B. The product of current and voltage
+	- C. The ratio of voltage to current
+	- D. The product of current and reactance 
+- [[G5A09]] (B)
+What unit is used to measure reactance? #card
+	- A. Farad
+	- B. Ohm
+	- C. Ampere
+	- D. Siemens
+- [[G5A10]] (D)
+Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies? #card
+	- A. A transformer
+	- B. A Pi-network
+	- C. A length of transmission line
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G5A11]] (B)
+What letter is used to represent reactance? #card
+	- A. Z
+	- B. X
+	- C. B
+	- D. Y
+- [[G5A12]] (D)
+What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance? 
+	- A. Current and voltage are equal
+	- B. Resistance is cancelled
+	- C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
+	- D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel
diff --git a/pages/G5B.md b/pages/G5B.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..250821e
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G5B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,86 @@
+G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
+
+- [[G5B01]] (B)
+What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power? #card
+	- A. Approximately 2 dB
+	- B. Approximately 3 dB
+	- C. Approximately 6 dB
+	- D. Approximately 9 dB
+- [[G5B02]] (C)
+How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors? #card
+	- A. It equals the average of the branch currents
+	- B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
+	- C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
+	- D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop
+- [[G5B03]] (B)
+How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load? #card
+	- A. 0.5 watts
+	- B. 200 watts
+	- C. 400 watts
+	- D. 3200 watts
+- [[G5B04]] (A)
+How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes? #card
+	- A. 2.4 watts
+	- B. 24 watts
+	- C. 6 watts
+	- D. 60 watts
+- [[G5B05]] (A)
+How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance? #card
+	- A. Approximately 61 milliwatts
+	- B. Approximately 61 watts
+	- C. Approximately 11 milliwatts
+	- D. Approximately 11 watts
+- [[G5B06]] (B)
+What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load? #card
+	- A. 1.4 watts
+	- B. 100 watts
+	- C. 353.5 watts
+	- D. 400 watts
+- [[G5B07]] (C)
+What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value? #card
+	- A. The peak-to-peak value
+	- B. The peak value
+	- C. The RMS value
+	- D. The reciprocal of the RMS value
+- [[G5B08]] (D)
+What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts? #card
+	- A. 84.8 volts
+	- B. 169.7 volts
+	- C. 240.0 volts
+	- D. 339.4 volts
+- [[G5B09]] (B)
+What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak? #card
+	- A. 8.5 volts
+	- B. 12 volts
+	- C. 24 volts
+	- D. 34 volts
+- [[G5B10]] (C)
+What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB? #card
+	- A. 10.9 percent
+	- B. 12.2 percent
+	- C. 20.6 percent
+	- D. 25.9 percent
+- [[G5B11]] (B)
+What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier? #card
+	- A. 0.707
+	- B. 1.00
+	- C. 1.414
+	- D. 2.00
+- [[G5B12]] (B)
+What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? #card
+	- A. 173 volts
+	- B. 245 volts
+	- C. 346 volts
+	- D. 692 volts
+- [[G5B13]] (B)
+What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts? #card
+	- A. 530 watts
+	- B. 1060 watts
+	- C. 1500 watts
+	- D. 2120 watts
+- [[G5B14]] (B)
+What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load? #card
+	- A. 8.75 watts
+	- B. 625 watts
+	- C. 2500 watts
+	- D. 5000 watts
diff --git a/pages/G5C.md b/pages/G5C.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G5C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,86 @@
+G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
+
+- [[G5C01]] (C)
+What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding? #card
+	- A. Capacitive coupling
+	- B. Displacement current coupling
+	- C. Mutual inductance
+	- D. Mutual capacitance
+- [[G5C02]] (A)
+What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding? #card
+	- A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4
+	- B. The input voltage is divided by 4
+	- C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
+	- D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload
+- [[G5C03]] (A)
+What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel? #card
+	- A. 5.9 ohms
+	- B. 0.17 ohms
+	- C. 17 ohms
+	- D. 80 ohms
+- [[G5C04]] (D)
+What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel? #card
+	- A. 300 ohms
+	- B. 150 ohms
+	- C. 75 ohms
+	- D. 67 ohms
+- [[G5C05]] (B)
+Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding? #card
+	- A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
+	- B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary
+	- C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
+	- D. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding
+- [[G5C06]] (A)
+What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary? #card
+	- A. 360 volts
+	- B. 120 volts
+	- C. 40 volts
+	- D. 25.5 volts 
+- [[G5C07]] (A)
+What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable? #card
+	- A. 3.5 to 1
+	- B. 12 to 1
+	- C. 24 to 1
+	- D. 144 to 1
+- [[G5C08]] (D)
+What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel? #card
+	- A. 576.9 nanofarads
+	- B. 1,733 picofarads
+	- C. 3,583 picofarads
+	- D. 10.750 nanofarads
+- [[G5C09]] (C)
+What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series? #card
+	- A. 0.33 microfarads
+	- B. 3.0 microfarads
+	- C. 33.3 microfarads
+	- D. 300 microfarads
+- [[G5C10]] (C)
+What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel? #card
+	- A. 0.30 henries
+	- B. 3.3 henries
+	- C. 3.3 millihenries
+	- D. 30 millihenries
+- [[G5C11]] (C)
+What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor? #card
+	- A. 7 millihenries
+	- B. 14.3 millihenries
+	- C. 70 millihenries
+	- D. 1,000 millihenries
+- [[G5C12]] (B)
+What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor? #card
+	- A. 0.07 microfarads
+	- B. 14.3 microfarads
+	- C. 70 microfarads
+	- D. 1,000 microfarads
+- [[G5C13]] (C)
+Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance? #card
+	- A. An inductor in series
+	- B. An inductor in parallel
+	- C. A capacitor in parallel
+	- D. A capacitor in series
+- [[G5C14]] (D)
+Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance? #card
+	- A. A capacitor in series
+	- B. A capacitor in parallel
+	- C. An inductor in parallel
+	- D. An inductor in series
diff --git a/pages/G6A.md b/pages/G6A.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..c97b36f
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G6A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
+
+- [[G6A01]] (C)
+What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery? #card
+	- A. 6 volts
+	- B. 8.5 volts
+	- C. 10.5 volts
+	- D. 12 volts
+- [[G6A02]] (B)
+What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance? #card
+	- A. Long life
+	- B. High discharge current
+	- C. High voltage
+	- D. Rapid recharge
+- [[G6A03]] (B)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode? #card
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+- [[G6A04]] (C)
+Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor? #card
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. Much less leakage than any other type
+	- C. High capacitance for a given volume
+	- D. Inexpensive RF capacitor
+- [[G6A05]] (C)
+What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode? #card
+	- A. 0.1 volt
+	- B. 0.3 volts
+	- C. 0.7 volts
+	- D. 1.0 volts
+- [[G6A06]] (B)
+Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits? #card
+	- A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate
+	- B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
+	- C. The resistor could overheat
+	- D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit
+- [[G6A07]] (A)
+What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch? #card
+	- A. Saturation and cutoff
+	- B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
+	- C. Peak and valley current points
+	- D. Enhancement and depletion modes
+- [[G6A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors? #card
+	- A. Tight tolerance
+	- B. High stability
+	- C. High capacitance for given volume
+	- D. Comparatively low cost
+- [[G6A09]] (B)
+Which of the following describes MOSFET construction? #card
+	- A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
+	- B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
+	- C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
+	- D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon
+- [[G6A10]] (A)
+Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? #card
+	- A. Control grid
+	- B. Suppressor grid
+	- C. Screen grid
+	- D. Trigger electrode
+- [[G6A11]] (C)
+What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency? #card
+	- A. Its reactance increases
+	- B. Harmonics are generated
+	- C. It becomes capacitive
+	- D. Catastrophic failure is likely
+- [[G6A12]] (A)
+What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? #card
+	- A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
+	- B. To increase efficiency
+	- C. To increase the control grid resistance
+	- D. To decrease plate resistance
diff --git a/pages/G6B.md b/pages/G6B.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..c0df5e2
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G6B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,71 @@
+G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores
+
+- [[G6B01]] (C)
+What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies? #card
+	- A. Its conductivity
+	- B. Its thickness
+	- C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
+	- D. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter
+- [[G6B02]] (B)
+What is meant by the term MMIC? #card
+	- A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
+	- B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
+	- C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
+	- D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit
+- [[G6B03]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits? #card
+	- A. Low power consumption
+	- B. High power handling capability
+	- C. Better suited for RF amplification
+	- D. Better suited for power supply regulation
+- [[G6B04]] (C)
+What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors? #card
+	- A. 50 MHz
+	- B. 500 MHz
+	- C. 4 GHz
+	- D. 40 GHz
+- [[G6B05]] (D)
+What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor? #card
+	- A. Large values of inductance may be obtained
+	- B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
+	- C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G6B06]] (D)
+What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? #card
+	- A. Digital
+	- B. MMIC
+	- C. Programmable Logic
+	- D. Analog
+- [[G6B07]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a type N connector? #card
+	- A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
+	- B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
+	- C. A low noise figure VHF connector
+	- D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259
+- [[G6B08]] (D)
+How is an LED biased when emitting light? #card
+	- A. In the tunnel-effect region
+	- B. At the Zener voltage
+	- C. Reverse biased
+	- D. Forward biased
+- [[G6B09]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+- [[G6B10]] (A)
+How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable? #card
+	- A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path
+	- B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
+	- C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
+	- D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields
+- [[G6B11]] (B)
+What is an SMA connector? #card
+	- A. A type-S to type-M adaptor
+	- B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
+	- C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
+	- D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications
+- [[G6B12]] (C)
+Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver? #card
+	- A. PL-259
+	- B. BNC
+	- C. RCA Phono
+	- D. Type N
diff --git a/pages/G7-1.md b/pages/G7-1.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..853e810
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G7-1.md
@@ -0,0 +1,2 @@
+- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+-
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/pages/G7A.md b/pages/G7A.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..1e78f7b
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G7A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,85 @@
+G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols
+
+- [[G7A01]] (B)
+  What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor? #card
+	- A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
+	- B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
+	- C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
+	- D. It eliminates ground loop current
+- [[G7A02]] (C)
+  Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network? #card
+	- A. Diodes
+	- B. Transformers and transducers
+	- C. Capacitors and inductors
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G7A03]] (A)
+  Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer? #card
+	- A. Full-wave
+	- B. Full-wave bridge
+	- C. Half-wave
+	- D. Synchronous
+- [[G7A04]] (A)
+  What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply? #card
+	- A. Only one diode is required
+	- B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
+	- C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
+	- D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage
+- [[G7A05]] (B)
+  What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier? #card
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+- [[G7A06]] (D)
+  What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier? #card
+	- A. 90 degrees
+	- B. 180 degrees
+	- C. 270 degrees
+	- D. 360 degrees
+- [[G7A07]] (A)
+  What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? #card
+	- A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
+	- B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
+	- C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
+	- D. A steady DC voltage
+- [[G7A08]] (C)
+  Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply? #card
+	- A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
+	- B. Fewer circuit components are required
+	- C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
+	- D. Inherently more stable
+- [[G7A09]] (C)
+  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+	- A. Symbol 2
+	- B. Symbol 5
+	- C. Symbol 1
+	- D. Symbol 4
+- [[G7A10]] (D)
+  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 1
+	- C. Symbol 11
+	- D. Symbol 5
+- [[G7A11]] (B)
+  Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+	- A. Symbol 1
+	- B. Symbol 2
+	- C. Symbol 7
+	- D. Symbol 11
+- [[G7A12]] (C)
+  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+	- A. Symbol 4
+	- B. Symbol 7
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
+- [[G7A13]] (A)
+  Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? #card
+  ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png)
+	- A. Symbol 7
+	- B. Symbol 11
+	- C. Symbol 6
+	- D. Symbol 1
\ No newline at end of file
diff --git a/pages/G7B.md b/pages/G7B.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G7B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
+
+- [[G7B01]] (B)
+What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier? #card
+	- A. To limit the modulation index
+	- B. To eliminate self-oscillations
+	- C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
+	- D. To keep the carrier on frequency
+- [[G7B02]] (D)
+Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? #card
+	- A. Class A
+	- B. Class B
+	- C. Class AB
+	- D. Class C
+- [[G7B03]] (B)
+Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate? #card
+	- A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low
+	- B. Output is high only when both inputs are high
+	- C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high
+	- D. Output is low only when both inputs are high
+- [[G7B04]] (A)
+In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct? #card
+	- A. 100%
+	- B. More than 50% but less than 100%
+	- C. 50%
+	- D. Less than 50%
+- [[G7B05]] (C)
+How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? #card
+	- A. 3
+	- B. 6
+	- C. 8
+	- D. 16
+- [[G7B06]] (A)
+What is a shift register? #card
+	- A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
+	- B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
+	- C. A digital mixer
+	- D. An analog mixer
+- [[G7B07]] (D)
+Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator? #card
+	- A. An amplifier and a divider
+	- B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer
+	- C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
+	- D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop
+- [[G7B08]] (B)
+How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? #card
+	- A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
+	- B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
+	- C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
+	- D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power
+- [[G7B09]] (C)
+What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator? #card
+	- A. The number of stages in the counter
+	- B. The number of stages in the divider
+	- C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
+	- D. The time delay of the lag circuit
+- [[G7B10]] (B)
+Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? #card
+	- A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
+	- B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
+	- C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier
+	- D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier
+- [[G7B11]] (B)
+For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? #card
+	- A. SSB
+	- B. FM
+	- C. AM
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/pages/G7C.md b/pages/G7C.md
new file mode 100644
index 0000000..3be1b92
--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G7C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,86 @@
+G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)
+
+- [[G7C01]] (B)
+What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator? #card
+	- A. Carrier oscillator
+	- B. Filter
+	- C. IF amplifier
+	- D. RF amplifier
+- [[G7C02]] (D)
+What output is produced by a balanced modulator? #card
+	- A. Frequency modulated RF
+	- B. Audio with equalized frequency response
+	- C. Audio extracted from the modulation signal
+	- D. Double-sideband modulated RF
+- [[G7C03]] (B)
+What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output? #card
+	- A. To minimize transmitter power output
+	- B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
+	- C. To reduce power supply ripple
+	- D. To minimize radiation resistance
+- [[G7C04]] (D)
+How is a product detector used? #card
+	- A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
+	- B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
+	- C. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
+	- D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal
+- [[G7C05]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? #card
+	- A. Extremely narrow tuning range
+	- B. Relatively high-power output
+	- C. Pure sine wave output
+	- D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator
+- [[G7C06]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter? #card
+	- A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
+	- B. Fewer digital components are required
+	- C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
+	- D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies
+- [[G7C07]] (A)
+What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband? #card
+	- A. Insertion loss
+	- B. Return loss
+	- C. Q
+	- D. Ultimate rejection
+- [[G7C08]] (D)
+Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity? #card
+	- A. Input amplifier gain
+	- B. Demodulator stage bandwidth
+	- C. Input amplifier noise figure
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G7C09]] (B)
+What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation? #card
+	- A. Zero
+	- B. 90 degrees
+	- C. 180 degrees
+	- D. 45 degrees
+- [[G7C10]] (B)
+What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)? #card
+	- A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
+	- B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
+	- C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
+	- D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog
+- [[G7C11]] (D)
+Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)? #card
+	- A. Filtering
+	- B. Detection 
+	- C. Modulation
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G7C12]] (C)
+What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power? #card
+	- A. Notch frequency
+	- B. Neper frequency
+	- C. Cutoff frequency
+	- D. Rolloff frequency
+- [[G7C13]] (D)
+What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband? #card
+	- A. Notch depth
+	- B. Rolloff
+	- C. Insertion loss
+	- D. Ultimate rejection
+- [[G7C14]] (A)
+The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies? #card
+	- A. Upper and lower half-power
+	- B. Cutoff and rolloff
+	- C. Pole and zero
+	- D. Image and harmonic
diff --git a/pages/G8A.md b/pages/G8A.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G8A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,86 @@
+G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
+
+- [[G8A01]] (B)
+How is direct binary FSK modulation generated? #card
+	- A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
+	- B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal
+	- C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
+	- D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator
+- [[G8A02]] (B)
+What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information? #card
+	- A. Phase convolution
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Phase transformation
+	- D. Phase inversion
+- [[G8A03]] (D)
+What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information? #card
+	- A. Frequency convolution
+	- B. Frequency transformation
+	- C. Frequency conversion
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+- [[G8A04]] (B)
+What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage? #card
+	- A. Multiplex modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Amplitude modulation
+	- D. Pulse modulation
+- [[G8A05]] (D)
+What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? #card
+	- A. Power modulation
+	- B. Phase modulation
+	- C. Frequency modulation
+	- D. Amplitude modulation
+- [[G8A06]] (D)
+Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31? #card
+	- A. It is sideband sensitive
+	- B. Its encoding provides error correction
+	- C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G8A07]] (A)
+Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth? #card
+	- A. Single sideband
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Phase modulation
+	- D. Frequency modulation
+- [[G8A08]] (D)
+Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation? #card
+	- A. Insufficient audio
+	- B. Insufficient bandwidth
+	- C. Frequency drift
+	- D. Excessive bandwidth
+- [[G8A09]] (A)
+What type of modulation is used by FT8? #card
+	- A. 8-tone frequency shift keying
+	- B. Vestigial sideband
+	- C. Amplitude compressed AM
+	- D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum
+- [[G8A10]] (C)
+What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal? #card
+	- A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
+	- B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
+	- C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
+	- D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed
+- [[G8A11]] (A)
+What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal? #card
+	- A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
+	- B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal
+	- C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
+	- D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal
+- [[G8A12]] (D)
+What is QPSK modulation? #card
+	- A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
+	- B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
+	- C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
+	- D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits
+- [[G8A13]] (C)
+What is a link budget? #card
+	- A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
+	- B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
+	- C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
+	- D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity
+- [[G8A14]] (B)
+What is link margin? #card
+	- A. The opposite of fade margin
+	- B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
+	- C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
+	- D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB
diff --git a/pages/G8B.md b/pages/G8B.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G8B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,80 @@
+G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation
+
+- [[G8B01]] (B)
+Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)? #card
+	- A. Image frequency
+	- B. Local oscillator
+	- C. RF input
+	- D. Beat frequency oscillator
+- [[G8B02]] (B)
+What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal? #card
+	- A. Quadrature response
+	- B. Image response
+	- C. Mixer interference
+	- D. Intermediate interference
+- [[G8B03]] (A)
+What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals? #card
+	- A. Heterodyning
+	- B. Synthesizing
+	- C. Frequency inversion
+	- D. Phase inversion
+- [[G8B04]] (D)
+What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency? #card
+	- A. Mixer
+	- B. Reactance modulator
+	- C. Balanced converter
+	- D. Multiplier
+- [[G8B05]] (C)
+Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies? #card
+	- A. Second harmonics
+	- B. Even-order
+	- C. Odd-order
+	- D. Intercept point
+- [[G8B06]] (D)
+What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency? #card
+	- A. 3 kHz
+	- B. 5 kHz
+	- C. 8 kHz
+	- D. 16 kHz
+- [[G8B07]] (B)
+What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter? #card
+	- A. 101.75 Hz
+	- B. 416.7 Hz
+	- C. 5 kHz
+	- D. 60 kHz
+- [[G8B08]] (B)
+Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting? #card
+	- A. To aid in tuning your transmitter
+	- B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating
+	- C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
+	- D. To prevent overmodulation
+- [[G8B09]] (D)
+Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode? #card
+	- A. It is required by FCC rules
+	- B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
+	- C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna
+	- D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio
+- [[G8B10]] (B)
+What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth? #card
+	- A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
+	- B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
+	- C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
+	- D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate
+- [[G8B11]] (C)
+What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output? #card
+	- A. The ratio
+	- B. The average
+	- C. The sum and difference
+	- D. The arithmetic product
+- [[G8B12]] (A)
+What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs? #card
+	- A. Intermodulation
+	- B. Heterodyning
+	- C. Detection
+	- D. Rolloff
+- [[G8B13]] (C)
+Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2? #card
+	- A. 5F1-3F2
+	- B. 3F1-F2
+	- C. 2F1-F2
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/pages/G8C.md b/pages/G8C.md
new file mode 100644
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G8C.md
@@ -0,0 +1,98 @@
+G8C – Digital emission modes
+
+- [[G8C01]] (C)
+On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service? #card
+	- A. 432 MHz
+	- B. 902 MHz
+	- C. 2.4 GHz
+	- D. 10.7 GHz
+- [[G8C02]] (A)
+Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation? #card
+	- A. WSPR
+	- B. MFSK16
+	- C. PSK31
+	- D. SSB-SC
+- [[G8C03]] (C)
+What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information? #card
+	- A. Directory
+	- B. Preamble
+	- C. Header
+	- D. Trailer
+- [[G8C04]] (C)
+Which of the following describes Baudot code? #card
+	- A. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
+	- B. A code using error detection and correction
+	- C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
+	- D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN
+- [[G8C05]] (A)
+In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet? #card
+	- A. Request retransmission of the packet
+	- B. Packet was received without error
+	- C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
+	- D. Entire file received correctly
+- [[G8C06]] (B)
+What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode? #card
+	- A. The checksum overflows
+	- B. The connection is dropped
+	- C. Packets will be routed incorrectly
+	- D. Encoding reverts to the default character set
+- [[G8C07]] (B)
+Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios? #card
+	- A. MSK144
+	- B. FT8
+	- C. AMTOR
+	- D. MFSK32
+- [[G8C08]] (B)
+Which of the following statements is true about PSK31? #card
+	- A. Upper case letters are sent with more power
+	- B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
+	- C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
+	- D. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates
+- [[G8C09]] (B)
+Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes? #card
+	- A. Having more nodes increases signal strengths
+	- B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
+	- C. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
+	- D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference
+- [[G8C10]] (C)
+How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors? #card
+	- A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
+	- B. By using the Varicode character set
+	- C. By transmitting redundant information with the data
+	- D. By using a parity bit with each character
+- [[G8C11]] (D)
+How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified? #card
+	- A. Dot and dash
+	- B. On and off
+	- C. High and low
+	- D. Mark and space
+- [[G8C12]] (A)
+Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal? #card
+	- A. Varicode
+	- B. Viterbi
+	- C. Volumetric
+	- D. Binary
+- [[G8C13]] (D)
+What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal? #card
+	- A. Long path propagation
+	- B. Backscatter propagation
+	- C. Insufficient modulation
+	- D. Overmodulation
+- [[G8C14]] (C)
+Which of the following describes a waterfall display? #card
+	- A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
+	- B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
+	- C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
+	- D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity
+- [[G8C15]] (C)
+What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean? #card
+	- A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
+	- B. The signal is S3 (weak signals)
+	- C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
+	- D. The signal is 3 dB over S9
+- [[G8C16]] (D)
+Which of the following provide digital voice modes? #card
+	- A. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
+	- B. FT8, FT4, and FST4
+	- C. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
+	- D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion
diff --git a/pages/G9A.md b/pages/G9A.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G9A.md
@@ -0,0 +1,68 @@
+G9A – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching
+
+- [[G9A01]] (A)
+Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line? #card
+	- A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
+	- B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
+	- C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
+	- D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line
+- [[G9A02]] (B)
+What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss? #card
+	- A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
+	- B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
+	- C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
+	- D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss
+- [[G9A03]] (D)
+What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line? #card
+	- A. 50 ohms
+	- B. 75 ohms
+	- C. 100 ohms
+	- D. 450 ohms
+- [[G9A04]] (C)
+What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point? #card
+	- A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
+	- B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
+	- C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
+	- D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line
+- [[G9A05]] (B)
+How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency? #card
+	- A. Attenuation is independent of frequency
+	- B. Attenuation increases
+	- C. Attenuation decreases
+	- D. Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation
+- [[G9A06]] (D)
+In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed? #card
+	- A. Ohms per 1,000 feet
+	- B. Decibels per 1,000 feet
+	- C. Ohms per 100 feet
+	- D. Decibels per 100 feet
+- [[G9A07]] (D)
+What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna? #card
+	- A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
+	- B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
+	- C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
+	- D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line
+- [[G9A08]] (B)
+If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line? #card
+	- A. 1:1
+	- B. 5:1
+	- C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
+	- D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter
+- [[G9A09]] (A)
+What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load? #card
+	- A. 4:1
+	- B. 1:4
+	- C. 2:1
+	- D. 1:2
+- [[G9A10]] (D)
+What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load? #card
+	- A. 2:1
+	- B. 1:2
+	- C. 1:5
+	- D. 5:1
+- [[G9A11]] (A)
+What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line? #card
+	- A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- B. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
+	- D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement
diff --git a/pages/G9B.md b/pages/G9B.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G9B.md
@@ -0,0 +1,74 @@
+G9B – Basic dipole and monopole antennas
+
+- [[G9B01]] (B)
+What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter? #card
+	- A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength
+	- B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current
+	- C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation
+	- D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands
+- [[G9B02]] (B)
+Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms? #card
+	- A. Slope the radials upward
+	- B. Slope the radials downward
+	- C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
+	- D. Coil the radials
+- [[G9B03]] (D)
+Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna? #card
+	- A. Bi-directional in azimuth
+	- B. Isotropic
+	- C. Hemispherical
+	- D. Omnidirectional in azimuth
+- [[G9B04]] (A)
+What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor? #card
+	- A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
+	- B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
+	- C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
+	- D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side
+- [[G9B05]] (C)
+How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees? #card
+	- A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
+	- B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
+	- C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
+	- D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated
+- [[G9B06]] (C)
+Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed? #card
+	- A. As high as possible above the ground
+	- B. Parallel to the antenna element
+	- C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
+	- D. At the center of the antenna
+- [[G9B07]] (B)
+How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground? #card
+	- A. It steadily increases
+	- B. It steadily decreases
+	- C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
+	- D. It is unaffected by the height above ground
+- [[G9B08]] (A)
+How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends? #card
+	- A. It steadily increases
+	- B. It steadily decreases
+	- C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
+	- D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point
+- [[G9B09]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna? #card
+	- A. Lower ground losses
+	- B. Lower feed point impedance
+	- C. Shorter radials
+	- D. Lower radiation resistance
+- [[G9B10]] (D)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz? #card
+	- A. 8 feet
+	- B. 16 feet
+	- C. 24 feet
+	- D. 33 feet
+- [[G9B11]] (C)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz? #card
+	- A. 42 feet
+	- B. 84 feet
+	- C. 132 feet
+	- D. 263 feet
+- [[G9B12]] (A)
+What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz? #card
+	- A. 8 feet
+	- B. 11 feet
+	- C. 16 feet
+	- D. 21 feet
diff --git a/pages/G9C.md b/pages/G9C.md
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--- /dev/null
+++ b/pages/G9C.md
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+G9C – Directional antennas
+
+- [[G9C01]] (A) 
+Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. Larger-diameter elements
+	- B. Closer element spacing
+	- C. Loading coils in series with the element
+	- D. Tapered-diameter elements
+- [[G9C02]] (B)
+What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. 1/4 wavelength
+	- B. 1/2 wavelength
+	- C. 3/4 wavelength
+	- D. 1 wavelength
+- [[G9C03]] (A)
+How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element? #card
+	- A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
+	- B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
+	- C. They are all the same length
+	- D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation
+- [[G9C04]] (B)
+How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna? #card
+	- A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
+	- B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
+	- C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
+	- D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher
+- [[G9C05]] (A)
+What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. Gain increases
+	- B. Beamwidth increases
+	- C. Front-to-back ratio decreases
+	- D. Resonant frequency is lower
+- [[G9C06]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+- [[G9C07]] (C)
+What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
+	- B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
+	- C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
+	- D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain
+- [[G9C08]] (D)
+What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna? #card
+	- A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
+	- B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
+	- C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
+	- D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna
+- [[G9C09]] (B)
+In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi? #card
+	- A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher
+	- B. Approximately 3 dB higher
+	- C. Approximately 6 dB higher
+	- D. Approximately 9 dB higher
+- [[G9C10]] (D)
+Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. The physical length of the boom
+	- B. The number of elements on the boom
+	- C. The spacing of each element along the boom
+	- D. All these choices are correct
+- [[G9C11]] (A)
+What is a beta or hairpin match? #card
+	- A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
+	- B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
+	- C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
+	- D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna
+- [[G9C12]] (A)
+Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna? #card
+	- A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
+	- B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors
+	- C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas
+	- D. All these choices are correct
diff --git a/pages/G9D.md b/pages/G9D.md
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+G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications
+
+- [[G9D01]] (A)
+Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day? #card
+	- A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
+	- B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+	- D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
+- [[G9D02]] (D)
+What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna? #card
+	- A. Very low
+	- B. Approximately 50 ohms
+	- C. Approximately 300 ohms
+	- D. Very high
+- [[G9D03]] (C)
+In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna? #card
+	- A. Broadside to the plane of the halo
+	- B. Opposite the feed point
+	- C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
+	- D. On the same side as the feed point
+- [[G9D04]] (A)
+What is the primary function of antenna traps? #card
+	- A. To enable multiband operation
+	- B. To notch spurious frequencies
+	- C. To provide balanced feed point impedance
+	- D. To prevent out-of-band operation
+- [[G9D05]] (D)
+What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas? #card
+	- A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
+	- B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
+	- C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
+	- D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation
+- [[G9D06]] (A)
+Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna? #card
+	- A. Wide bandwidth
+	- B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
+	- C. Harmonic suppression
+	- D. Polarization diversity
+- [[G9D07]] (A)
+Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna? #card
+	- A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
+	- B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
+	- C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
+	- D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length
+- [[G9D08]] (B)
+How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance? #card
+	- A. By varying its body capacitance
+	- B. By varying the base loading inductance
+	- C. By extending and retracting the whip
+	- D. By deploying a capacitance hat
+- [[G9D09]] (A)
+What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna? #card
+	- A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
+	- B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands
+	- C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
+	- D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies
+- [[G9D10]] (B)
+In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern? #card
+	- A. In the plane of the loop
+	- B. Broadside to the loop
+	- C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop
+	- D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional
+- [[G9D11]] (D)
+Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas? #card
+	- A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies
+	- B. They must be used with an antenna tuner
+	- C. They must be fed with open wire line
+	- D. They have poor harmonic rejection
+- [[G9D12]] (A)
+What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support? #card
+	- A. Inverted V
+	- B. Inverted L
+	- C. Sloper
+	- D. Lazy H
+- [[G9D13]]  Question Removed (section not renumbered)
+
+
+
+SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups]
+
diff --git a/pages/General Syllabus.md b/pages/General Syllabus.md
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+- [[SUBELEMENT G1]] – COMMISSION’S RULES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] 57 Questions
+	- [[G1A]] – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations
+	- [[G1B]] – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals
+	- [[G1C]] – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements
+	- [[G1D]] – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation
+	- [[G1E]] – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station
+- [[SUBELEMENT G2]] – OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] 60 Questions
+	- [[G2A]] – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations
+	- [[G2B]] – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation
+	- [[G2C]] – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in
+	- [[G2D]] – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations
+	- [[G2E]] – Digital mode operating procedures
+- [[SUBELEMENT G3]] – RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 37 Questions
+	- [[G3A]] – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices
+	- [[G3B]] – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction
+	- [[G3C]] – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS)
+- [[SUBELEMENT G4]] – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions – 5 groups] 60 Questions
+	- [[G4A]] – Station configuration and operation
+	- [[G4B]] – Tests and test equipment
+	- [[G4C]] – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding
+	- [[G4D]] – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges
+	- [[G4E]] – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation
+- [[SUBELEMENT G5]] – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 40 Questions
+	- [[G5A]] – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance
+	- [[G5B]] – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations
+	- [[G5C]] – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers
+- [[SUBELEMENT G6]] – CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] 24 Questions
+	- [[G6A]] – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries
+	- [[G6B]] – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores
+- [[SUBELEMENT G7]] – PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 38 Questions
+	- [[G7A]] – Power supplies; schematic symbols
+	- [[G7B]] – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators
+	- [[G7C]] – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP)
+- [[SUBELEMENT G8]] – SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 43 Questions
+	- [[G8A]] – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins
+	- [[G8B]] – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation
+	- [[G8C]] – Digital emission modes
+- [[SUBELEMENT G9]] – ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 Exam Questions – 4 Groups] 46 Questions
+	- [[G9A]] – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching
+	- [[G9B]] – Basic dipole and monopole antennas
+	- [[G9C]] – Directional antennas
+	- [[G9D]] – Specialized antenna types and applications
+- [[SUBELEMENT G0]] – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] 25 Questions
+	- [[G0A]] – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation
+	- [[G0B]] – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety
diff --git a/pages/contents.md b/pages/contents.md
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+++ b/pages/contents.md
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+- [[About]]
+- [[General Syllabus]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G1]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G2]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G3]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G4]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G5]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G6]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G7]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G8]]
+	- [[SUBELEMENT G9]]
+- [[Diagrams]
+	- [[G7-1]]
\ No newline at end of file