commit 25913552a25c2c9a8da4809c1a8db9fd84a58ab9 Author: Chris Date: Thu May 1 13:59:40 2025 -0500 Initial checkin diff --git a/assets/image_1746125643370_0.png b/assets/image_1746125643370_0.png new file mode 100644 index 0000000..21f96ce Binary files /dev/null and b/assets/image_1746125643370_0.png differ diff --git a/journals/2025_05_01.md b/journals/2025_05_01.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..0832b54 --- /dev/null +++ b/journals/2025_05_01.md @@ -0,0 +1,2 @@ +- **13:13** Created this document for the 2023-2027 [[General Syllabus]] and question pool +- **13:56** Created the [[About]] page \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.958Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.958Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..bd0fdb7 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.958Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation + +- [[G0A01]] (A) +What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue? + - A. It heats body tissue + - B. It causes radiation poisoning + - C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level + - D. It cools body tissue +-- +- [[G0A02]] (D) +Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal? + - A. Its duty cycle + - B. Its frequency + - C. Its power density + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)] +How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? + - A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. By calculation based on computer modeling + - C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0A04]] (D) +What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure? + - A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period + - B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body + - C. The total time of the exposure + - D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period +-- +- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)] +What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption? + - A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields + - B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC + - C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)] +What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria? + - A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit + - C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines + - D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter +-- +- [[G0A07]] (A) +What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure? + - A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements + - D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements +-- +- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)] +Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations? + - A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station + - B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels + - C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0A09]] (B) +What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength? + - A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction + - B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna + - C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function + - D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator +-- +- [[G0A10]] (C) +What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna? + - A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain + - B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio + - C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0A11]] (C) +What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna? + - A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation + - B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation + - C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas + - D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded +-- +- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)] +What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure? + - A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt + - B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground + - C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP + - D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..73c497b --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G0A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation + +- [[G0A01]] (A) +What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue? + - A. It heats body tissue + - B. It causes radiation poisoning + - C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level + - D. It cools body tissue +- [[G0A02]] (D) +Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal? + - A. Its duty cycle + - B. Its frequency + - C. Its power density + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)] +How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? + - A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. By calculation based on computer modeling + - C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A04]] (D) +What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure? + - A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period + - B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body + - C. The total time of the exposure + - D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period +- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)] +What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption? + - A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields + - B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC + - C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)] +What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria? + - A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit + - C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines + - D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter +- [[G0A07]] (A) +What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure? + - A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements + - D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements +- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)] +Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations? + - A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station + - B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels + - C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A09]] (B) +What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength? + - A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction + - B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna + - C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function + - D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator +- [[G0A10]] (C) +What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna? + - A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain + - B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio + - C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A11]] (C) +What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna? + - A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation + - B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation + - C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas + - D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded +- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)] +What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure? + - A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt + - B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground + - C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP + - D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..bef6cb2 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G0B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G0B – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety + +- [[G0B01]] (A) +Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers? + - A. Only the hot wires + - B. Only the neutral wire + - C. Only the ground wire + - D. All wires +-- +- [[G0B02]] (C) +According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker? + - A. AWG number 20 + - B. AWG number 16 + - C. AWG number 12 + - D. AWG number 8 +-- +- [[G0B03]] (D) +Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring? + - A. 30 amperes + - B. 25 amperes + - C. 20 amperes + - D. 15 amperes +-- +- [[G0B04]] (B) +Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located? + - A. As close to the station equipment as possible + - B. Outside the building + - C. Next to the closest power pole + - D. Parallel to the water supply line +-- +- [[G0B05]] (B) +Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power? + - A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire + - B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground + - C. Overvoltage on the hot wires + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0B06]] (C) +Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code? + - A. Acceptable bandwidth limits + - B. Acceptable modulation limits + - C. Electrical safety of the station + - D. RF exposure limits of the human body +-- +- [[G0B07]] (B) +Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness? + - A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand + - B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life + - C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0B08]] (B) +What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices? + - A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower + - B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged + - C. Unground the base of the tower + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0B09]] (A) +Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation? + - A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area + - B. The generator must be insulated from ground + - C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G0B10]] (A) +Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder? + - A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder + - B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly + - C. Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit + - D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas +-- +- [[G0B11]] (D) +Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods? + - A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines + - B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle + - C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring + - D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds +-- +- [[G0B12]] (C) +What is the purpose of a power supply interlock? + - A. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty + - B. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot + - C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened + - D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced +-- +- [[G0B13]] (A) +Where should lightning arrestors be located? + - A. Where the feed lines enter the building + - B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point + - C. In series with each ground lead + - D. At the closest power pole ground electrode diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5ed10e8 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G1A – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations + +- [[G1A01]] (C) [97.301(d)] +On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit? + - A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters + - B. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters + - C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters + - D. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters +-- +- [[G1A02]] (B) [97.305] +On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? + - A. 160 meters + - B. 30 meters + - C. 17 meters + - D. 12 meters +-- +- [[G1A03]] (B) [97.305] +On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? + - A. 160 meters + - B. 30 meters + - C. 20 meters + - D. 12 meters +-- +- [[G1A04]] (D) [97.303(h)] +Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? + - A. 11 meters + - B. 12 meters + - C. 30 meters + - D. 60 meters +-- +- [[G1A05]] (A) [97.301(d)] +On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator? + - A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz + - B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz + - C. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz + - D. All of the above +-- +- [[G1A06]] (C) [97.303] +Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band? + - A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station + - B. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies + - C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users + - D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band +-- +- [[G1A07]] (D) [97.305(a)] +On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions? + - A. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only + - B. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only + - C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only + - D. The entire band +-- +- [[G1A08]] (B) [97.301(b)] +Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees? + - A. All HF bands + - B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters + - C. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters + - D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters +-- +- [[G1A09]] (C) [97.301(d)] +Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band? + - A. 14250 kHz + - B. 18155 kHz + - C. 21300 kHz + - D. 24900 kHz +-- +- [[G1A10]] (D) [97.205(b)] +What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use? + - A. The entire band + - B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz + - C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz + - D. The portion above 29.5 MHz +-- +- [[G1A11]] (B) [97.301] +When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them? + - A. The lower frequency portion + - B. The upper frequency portion + - C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz + - D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..088596d --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals + +- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)] +What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC? + - A. 50 feet + - B. 100 feet + - C. 200 feet + - D. 250 feet +-- +- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)] +With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? + - A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location + - B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization + - C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)] +Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules? + - A. Observation of propagation and reception + - B. Automatic identification of repeaters + - C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)] +Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations? + - A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only + - B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station + - C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations + - D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act +-- +- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)] +Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted? + - A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration + - B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code + - C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)] +Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures? + - A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority + - B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC + - C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure + - D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity +-- +- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)] +What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? + - A. Only “Q” signals are permitted + - B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message + - C. They are not permitted + - D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules +-- +- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)] +When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission? + - A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC + - B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications + - C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country + - D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country +-- +- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)] +On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted? + - A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt + - B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code + - C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz + - D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz +-- +- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)] +What is the power limit for beacon stations? + - A. 10 watts PEP output + - B. 20 watts PEP output + - C. 100 watts PEP output + - D. 200 watts PEP output +-- +- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)] +Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? + - A. The FCC + - B. The control operator + - C. The IEEE + - D. The ITU diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ee43db5 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals + +- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)] +What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC? + - A. 50 feet + - B. 100 feet + - C. 200 feet + - D. 250 feet +- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)] +With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? + - A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location + - B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization + - C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)] +Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules? + - A. Observation of propagation and reception + - B. Automatic identification of repeaters + - C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)] +Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations? + - A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only + - B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station + - C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations + - D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act +- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)] +Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted? + - A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration + - B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code + - C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)] +Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures? + - A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority + - B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC + - C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure + - D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity +- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)] +What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? + - A. Only “Q” signals are permitted + - B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message + - C. They are not permitted + - D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules +- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)] +When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission? + - A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC + - B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications + - C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country + - D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country +- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)] +On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted? + - A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt + - B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code + - C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz + - D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz +- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)] +What is the power limit for beacon stations? + - A. 10 watts PEP output + - B. 20 watts PEP output + - C. 100 watts PEP output + - D. 200 watts PEP output +- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)] +Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? + - A. The FCC + - B. The control operator + - C. The IEEE + - D. The ITU diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..29d5dbb --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G1C – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements + +- [[G1C01]] (A) [97.313(c)(1)] +What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? + - A. 200 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. 2000 watts PEP output +-- +- [[G1C02]] (C) [97.313] +What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band? + - A. 50 watts PEP output + - B. 200 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole +-- +- [[G1C03]] (A) [97.303(h)(1)] +What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band? + - A. 2.8 kHz + - B. 5.6 kHz + - C. 1.8 kHz + - D. 3 kHz +-- +- [[G1C04]] (A) [97.303(i)] +Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band? + - A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna + - B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked + - C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic + - D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used +-- +- [[G1C05]] (C) [97.313] +What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator? + - A. 100 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. 2000 watts PEP output +-- +- [[G1C06]] (D) [97.313] +What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band? + - A. 200 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1200 watts PEP output + - D. 1500 watts PEP output +-- +- [[G1C07]] (C) [97.309(a)(4)] +What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air? + - A. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards + - B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC + - C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol + - D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique +-- +- [[G1C08]] (D) [97.307(f)(3)] +What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? + - A. 56 kilobaud + - B. 19.6 kilobaud + - C. 1200 baud + - D. 300 baud +-- +- [[G1C09]] (C) [97.313(i)] +What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band? + - A. 1500 watts PEP + - B. 10 watts RMS + - C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole + - D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna +-- +- [[G1C10]] (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)] +What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band? + - A. 56 kilobaud + - B. 19.6 kilobaud + - C. 1200 baud + - D. 300 baud +-- +- [[G1C11]] (D) [97.313] +What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power? + - A. RMS output from the transmitter + - B. RMS input to the antenna + - C. PEP input to the antenna + - D. PEP output from the transmitter diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6e99397 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.960Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation + +- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)] +Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license? + - A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC + - B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago + - C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC + - D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license +-- +- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] +What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license? + - A. General and Technician + - B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited + - C. Technician only + - D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician +-- +- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)] +On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges? + - A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database + - B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment + - C. On any General or Technician class band segment + - D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters +-- +- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)] +Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination? + - A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher + - D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class +-- +- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7] +When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator? + - A. A US operator/primary station license + - B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC + - C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US + - D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC +-- +- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)] +Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign? + - A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges + - B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency + - C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges + - D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC +-- +- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)] +Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? + - A. The Federal Communications Commission + - B. The Universal Licensing System + - C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator + - D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau +-- +- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)] +Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? + - A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years + - B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above + - C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2 + - D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner +-- +- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)] +How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit? + - A. 30 days + - B. 180 days + - C. 365 days + - D. For as long as your current license is valid +-- +- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)] +What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? + - A. 16 years + - B. 18 years + - C. 21 years + - D. There is no age limit +-- +- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505] +What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed? + - A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license + - B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license + - C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated + - D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam +-- +- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507] +When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply? + - A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC + - B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations + - C. Only those of the remote station’s country + - D. Only those of the FCC diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ba42f6d --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.564Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation + +- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)] +Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license? + - A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC + - B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago + - C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC + - D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license +- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] +What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license? + - A. General and Technician + - B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited + - C. Technician only + - D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician +- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)] +On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges? + - A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database + - B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment + - C. On any General or Technician class band segment + - D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters +- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)] +Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination? + - A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher + - D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class +- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7] +When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator? + - A. A US operator/primary station license + - B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC + - C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US + - D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC +- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)] +Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign? + - A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges + - B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency + - C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges + - D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC +- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)] +Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? + - A. The Federal Communications Commission + - B. The Universal Licensing System + - C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator + - D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau +- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)] +Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? + - A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years + - B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above + - C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2 + - D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner +- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)] +How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit? + - A. 30 days + - B. 180 days + - C. 365 days + - D. For as long as your current license is valid +- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)] +What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? + - A. 16 years + - B. 18 years + - C. 21 years + - D. There is no age limit +- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505] +What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed? + - A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license + - B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license + - C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated + - D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam +- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507] +When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply? + - A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC + - B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations + - C. Only those of the remote station’s country + - D. Only those of the FCC diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G1E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G1E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ed42f20 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G1E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.959Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G1E – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station + +- [[G1E01]] (A) [97.115(b)(2)] +Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station? + - A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated + - B. The third party is not a US citizen + - C. The third party is speaking in a language other than English + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G1E02]] (D) [97.205(b)] +When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator? + - A. Under no circumstances + - B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission + - C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency + - D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license +-- +- [[G1E03]] (A) [97.221] +What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments? + - A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control + - B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station + - C. No third-party traffic may be transmitted + - D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license +-- +- [[G1E04]] (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)] +Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? + - A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station + - B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary + - C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G1E05]] (C) [97.115(a)(2), 97.117] +What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement? + - A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief + - B. They must be for other licensed amateurs + - C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief + - D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log +-- +- [[G1E06]] (C) [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations] +The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America? + - A. Region 4 + - B. Region 3 + - C. Region 2 + - D. Region 1 +-- +- [[G1E07]] (D) [97.111] +In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations? + - A. Anywhere in the band + - B. Channels 1 through 4 + - C. Channels 42 through 45 + - D. No part +-- +- [[G1E08]] (B) [97.313(j)] +What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions? + - A. 100 milliwatts + - B. 10 watts + - C. 100 watts + - D. 1500 watts +-- +- [[G1E09]] (A) [97.115] +Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication? + - A. Under no circumstances + - B. When messages are encrypted + - C. When messages are not encrypted + - D. When under automatic control +-- +- [[G1E10]] (A) [97.101] +Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz? + - A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies + - B. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies  + - C. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations + - D. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC +-- +- [[G1E11]] (D) [97.221, 97.305] +On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations? + - A. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted + - B. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands + - C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands + - D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands +-- +- [[G1E12]] (A) [97.115] +When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control? + - A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules + - B. Under no circumstances except for emergencies + - C. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs + - D. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3d333f9 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations + +- [[G2A01]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +-- +- [[G2A02]] (B) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +-- +- [[G2A03]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +-- +- [[G2A04]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +-- +- [[G2A05]] (C) +Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? + - A. Frequency modulation + - B. Double sideband + - C. Single sideband + - D. Single phase modulation +-- +- [[G2A06]] (D) +Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? + - A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation + - B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes + - C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise + - D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency +-- +- [[G2A07]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)? + - A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed + - B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed + - C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands + - D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands +-- +- [[G2A08]] (B) +What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact? + - A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign + - B. Say your call sign once + - C. Say “Breaker Breaker” + - D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station +-- +- [[G2A09]] (D) +Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? + - A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies + - B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands + - C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector + - D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice +-- +- [[G2A10]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation? + - A. The received signal is more natural sounding + - B. It allows “hands free” operation + - C. It occupies less bandwidth + - D. It provides more power output +-- +- [[G2A11]] (C) +Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”? + - A. Any caller is welcome to respond + - B. Only stations in Germany + - C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states + - D. Only contest stations +-- +- [[G2A12]] (B) +What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver? + - A. RF clipping level + - B. Transmit audio or microphone gain + - C. Antenna inductance or capacitance + - D. Attenuator level diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..07dbdce --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations + +- [[G2A01]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A02]] (B) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A03]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A04]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands? + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A05]] (C) +Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? + - A. Frequency modulation + - B. Double sideband + - C. Single sideband + - D. Single phase modulation +- [[G2A06]] (D) +Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? + - A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation + - B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes + - C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise + - D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency +- [[G2A07]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)? + - A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed + - B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed + - C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands + - D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands +- [[G2A08]] (B) +What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact? + - A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign + - B. Say your call sign once + - C. Say “Breaker Breaker” + - D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station +- [[G2A09]] (D) +Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? + - A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies + - B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands + - C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector + - D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice +- [[G2A10]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation? + - A. The received signal is more natural sounding + - B. It allows “hands free” operation + - C. It occupies less bandwidth + - D. It provides more power output +- [[G2A11]] (C) +Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”? + - A. Any caller is welcome to respond + - B. Only stations in Germany + - C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states + - D. Only contest stations +- [[G2A12]] (B) +What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver? + - A. RF clipping level + - B. Transmit audio or microphone gain + - C. Antenna inductance or capacitance + - D. Attenuator level diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..7cd583b --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G2B – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation + +- [[G2B01]] (C) [97.101(b), (c)] +Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies? + - A. Nets have priority + - B. QSOs in progress have priority + - C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency + - D. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies +-- +- [[G2B02]] (B) +What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? + - A. Inform your local emergency coordinator + - B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed + - C. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress + - D. Immediately cease all transmissions +-- +- [[G2B03]] (C) +What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency? + - A. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority + - B. Decrease power and continue to transmit + - C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner + - D. Switch to the opposite sideband +-- +- [[G2B04]] (B) +When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? + - A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz + - B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz + - C. 1 kHz to 3 kHz + - D. 3 kHz to 6 kHz +-- +- [[G2B05]] (C) +When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? + - A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz + - B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz + - C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz + - D. Approximately 6 kHz +-- +- [[G2B06]] (A) +How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone? + - A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign + - B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ + - C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response + - D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response +-- +- [[G2B07]] (C) +Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call? + - A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear + - B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times + - C. Follow the voluntary band plan + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2B08]] (A) +What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment? + - A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states + - B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states + - C. Only digital contacts + - D. Only SSTV contacts +-- +- [[G2B09]] (A) [97.407(a)] +Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster? + - A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license + - B. Only a RACES net control operator + - C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official + - D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational +-- +- [[G2B10]] (B) +Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management? + - A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in + - B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions + - C. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2B11]] (C) [97.407(d)(4)] +How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization? + - A. No more than 1 hour per month + - B. No more than 2 hours per month + - C. No more than 1 hour per week + - D. No more than 2 hours per week diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..4800866 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in + +- [[G2C01]] (D) +Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)? + - A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK” + - B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code + - C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission + - D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements +-- +- [[G2C02]] (A) +What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?” + - A. Send slower + - B. Change frequency + - C. Increase your power + - D. Repeat everything twice +-- +- [[G2C03]] (C) +What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission? + - A. No US stations should call + - B. Operating full break-in + - C. Listening only for a specific station or stations + - D. Closing station now +-- +- [[G2C04]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean? + - A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?” + - B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?” + - C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?” + - D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?” +-- +- [[G2C05]] (B) +What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code? + - A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ + - B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ + - C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm + - D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm +-- +- [[G2C06]] (D) +What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation? + - A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station + - B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency + - C. Sending without error + - D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal +-- +- [[G2C07]] (A) +When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report? + - A. Chirpy or unstable signal + - B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated + - C. 100 percent copy + - D. Key clicks +-- +- [[G2C08]] (C) +What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? + - A. SK + - B. BK + - C. AR + - D. KN +-- +- [[G2C09]] (C) +What does the Q signal “QSL” mean? + - A. Send slower + - B. We have already confirmed the contact + - C. I have received and understood + - D. We have worked before +-- +- [[G2C10]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRN” mean? + - A. Send more slowly + - B. Stop sending + - C. Zero beat my signal + - D. I am troubled by static +-- +- [[G2C11]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRV” mean? + - A. You are sending too fast + - B. There is interference on the frequency + - C. I am quitting for the day + - D. I am ready to receive diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.563Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.563Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a6379a6 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.563Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in + +- [[G2C01]] (D) +Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)? + - A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK” + - B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code + - C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission + - D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements +- [[G2C02]] (A) +What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?” + - A. Send slower + - B. Change frequency + - C. Increase your power + - D. Repeat everything twice +- [[G2C03]] (C) +What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission? + - A. No US stations should call + - B. Operating full break-in + - C. Listening only for a specific station or stations + - D. Closing station now +- [[G2C04]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean? + - A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?” + - B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?” + - C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?” + - D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?” +- [[G2C05]] (B) +What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code? + - A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ + - B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ + - C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm + - D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm +- [[G2C06]] (D) +What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation? + - A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station + - B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency + - C. Sending without error + - D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal +- [[G2C07]] (A) +When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report? + - A. Chirpy or unstable signal + - B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated + - C. 100 percent copy + - D. Key clicks +- [[G2C08]] (C) +What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? + - A. SK + - B. BK + - C. AR + - D. KN +- [[G2C09]] (C) +What does the Q signal “QSL” mean? + - A. Send slower + - B. We have already confirmed the contact + - C. I have received and understood + - D. We have worked before +- [[G2C10]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRN” mean? + - A. Send more slowly + - B. Stop sending + - C. Zero beat my signal + - D. I am troubled by static +- [[G2C11]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRV” mean? + - A. You are sending too fast + - B. There is interference on the frequency + - C. I am quitting for the day + - D. I am ready to receive diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6b406c1 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations + +- [[G2D01]] (A) +What is the Volunteer Monitor Program? + - A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations + - B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations + - C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters + - D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency +-- +- [[G2D02]] (D) +Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program? + - A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations + - B. To provide emergency and public safety communications + - C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage + - D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules +-- +- [[G2D03]] (B) +What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area? + - A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency + - B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors + - C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2D04]] (B) +Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? + - A. A map that shows accurate land masses + - B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location + - C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator + - D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit +-- +- [[G2D05]] (C) +Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station? + - A. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat + - B. Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat + - C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary + - D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary +-- +- [[G2D06]] (C) +How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station? + - A. Toward the rising sun + - B. Along the gray line + - C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading + - D. Toward the north +-- +- [[G2D07]] (D) +Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet? + - A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog + - B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David + - C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark + - D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta +-- +- [[G2D08]] (D) +Why do many amateurs keep a station log? + - A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts + - B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic + - C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest + - D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station +-- +- [[G2D09]] (C) +Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies? + - A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor + - B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World + - C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2D10]] (B) +What is QRP operation? + - A. Remote piloted model control + - B. Low-power transmit operation + - C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol + - D. Traffic relay procedure net operation +-- +- [[G2D11]] (A) +Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact? + - A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions + - B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs + - C. To follow standard radiogram structure + - D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..70b8461 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.565Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,65 @@ +G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations + +- [[G2D01]] (A) +What is the Volunteer Monitor Program? + - A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations + - B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations + - C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters + - D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency +- [[G2D02]] (D) +Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program? + - A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations + - B. To provide emergency and public safety communications + - C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage + - D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules +- [[G2D03]] (B) +What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area? + - A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency + - B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors + - C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2D04]] (B) +Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? + - A. A map that shows accurate land masses + - B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location + - C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator + - D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit +- [[G2D05]] (C) +Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station? + - C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary +- [[G2D06]] (C) +How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station? + - A. Toward the rising sun + - B. Along the gray line + - C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading + - D. Toward the north +- [[G2D07]] (D) +Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet? + - A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog + - B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David + - C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark + - D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta +- [[G2D08]] (D) +Why do many amateurs keep a station log? + - A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts + - B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic + - C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest + - D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station +- [[G2D09]] (C) +Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies? + - A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor + - B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World + - C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2D10]] (B) +What is QRP operation? + - A. Remote piloted model control + - B. Low-power transmit operation + - C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol + - D. Traffic relay procedure net operation +- [[G2D11]] (A) +Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact? + - A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions + - B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs + - C. To follow standard radiogram structure + - D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G2E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G2E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..beea5f4 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G2E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.961Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,106 @@ +G2E – Digital mode operating procedures + +- [[G2E01]] (D) +Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter? + - A. USB + - B. DSB + - C. CW + - D. LSB +-- +- [[G2E02]] (B) +What is VARA? + - A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce) + - B. A digital protocol used with Winlink + - C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF + - D.A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios +-- +- [[G2E03]] (D) +What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission? + - A. Frequent retries or timeouts + - B. Long pauses in message transmission + - C. Failure to establish a connection between stations + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2E04]] (D) +Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8? + - A. Always call on the station’s frequency + - B. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency + - C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station + - D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station +-- +- [[G2E05]] (B) +What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK? + - A. LSB + - B. USB + - C. DSB + - D. SSB +-- +- [[G2E06]] (B) +What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? + - A. 85 Hz + - B. 170 Hz + - C. 425 Hz + - D. 850 Hz +-- +- [[G2E07]] (B) +Which of the following is required when using FT8? + - A. A special hardware modem + - B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second + - C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB + - D. A vertically polarized antenna +-- +- [[G2E08]] (D) +In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found? + - A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz + - B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz + - C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz + - D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz +-- +- [[G2E09]] (C) +How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol? + - A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode + - B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects + - C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations + - D. Send a NAK code +-- +- [[G2E10]] (D) +Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station? + - A. Send an email to the system control operator + - B. Send QRL in Morse code + - C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID + - D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency +-- +- [[G2E11]] (C) +What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network? + - A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas + - B. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide + - C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event + - D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers +-- +- [[G2E12]] (D) +Which of the following describes Winlink? + - A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet + - B. A form of Packet Radio + - C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation + - D. All of the above +-- +- [[G2E13]] (B) +What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server? + - A. Terminal Node Controller + - B. Gateway + - C. RJ-45 + - D. Printer/Server +-- +- [[G2E14]] (D) +What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly? + - A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed + - B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate + - C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G2E15]] (C) +Which of the following is a common location for FT8? + - A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band + - B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band + - C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz + - D. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8e72963 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G3A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.962Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,99 @@ +G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices + +- [[G3A01]] (A) +How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation? + - A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies + - B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation + - C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band + - D. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions +-- +- [[G3A02]] (B) +What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation? + - A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies + - B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies + - C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications + - D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected +-- +- [[G3A03]] (C) +Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth? + - A. 28 days + - B. 1 to 2 hours + - C. 8 minutes + - D. 20 to 40 hours +-- +- [[G3A04]] (D) +Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity? + - A. 80 meters and 160 meters + - B. 60 meters and 40 meters + - C. 30 meters and 20 meters + - D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters +-- +- [[G3A05]] (D) +What is the solar flux index? + - A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth + - B. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions + - C. Another name for the American sunspot number + - D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters +-- +- [[G3A06]] (D) +What is a geomagnetic storm? + - A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index + - B. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation + - C. Ripples in the geomagnetic force + - D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field +-- +- [[G3A07]] (D) +At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? + - A. At the summer solstice + - B. Only at the maximum point + - C. Only at the minimum point + - D. At any point +-- +- [[G3A08]] (D) +How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation? + - A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation + - B. Degrade ground wave propagation + - C. Improve ground wave propagation + - D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation +-- +- [[G3A09]] (A) +How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications? + - A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals + - B. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions + - C. Improve HF long path propagation + - D. Reduce long delayed echoes +-- +- [[G3A10]] (C) +What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle? + - A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere + - B. Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts + - C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis + - D. The position of the Moon in its orbit +-- +- [[G3A11]] (D) +How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth? + - A. 28 days + - B. 14 days + - C. 4 to 8 minutes + - D. 15 hours to several days +-- +- [[G3A12]] (B) +What does the K-index measure? + - A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun + - B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field + - C. The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field + - D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado +-- +- [[G3A13]] (C) +What does the A-index measure? + - A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun + - B. The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field + - C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field + - D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado +-- +- [[G3A14]] (B) +How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes? + - A. HF communication is improved + - B. HF communication is disturbed + - C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved + - D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..13903d1 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G3B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction + +- [[G3B01]] (D) +What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation? + - A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds + - B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB + - C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation + - D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard +-- +- [[G3B02]] (D) +What factors affect the MUF? + - A. Path distance and location + - B. Time of day and season + - C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G3B03]] (A) +Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation? + - A. Just below the MUF + - B. Just above the LUF + - C. Just below the critical frequency + - D. Just above the critical frequency +-- +- [[G3B04]] (A) +Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station? + - A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received + - B. Check the A-index + - C. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G3B05]] (A) +How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF? + - A. They are refracted back to Earth + - B. They pass through the ionosphere + - C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere + - D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth +-- +- [[G3B06]] (C) +What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF? + - A. They are refracted back to Earth + - B. They pass through the ionosphere + - C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination + - D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth +-- +- [[G3B07]] (A) +What does LUF stand for? + - A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points + - B. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius + - C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period + - D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes +-- +- [[G3B08]] (B) +What does MUF stand for? + - A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points + - B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points + - C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period + - D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period +-- +- [[G3B09]] (C) +What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? + - A. 180 miles + - B. 1,200 miles + - C. 2,500 miles + - D. 12,000 miles +-- +- [[G3B10]] (B) +What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region? + - A. 180 miles + - B. 1,200 miles + - C. 2,500 miles + - D. 12,000 miles +-- +- [[G3B11]] (A) +What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF? + - A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path + - B. HF communications over the path are enhanced + - C. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common + - D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced +-- +- [[G3B12]] (D) +Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer? + - A. Poor propagation at any time of day + - B. World-wide propagation during daylight hours + - C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption + - D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..fc8352d --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.963Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) + +- [[G3C01]] (A) +Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth? + - A. The D region + - B. The E region + - C. The F1 region + - D. The F2 region +-- +- [[G3C02]] (A) +What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle? + - A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity + - D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB +-- +- [[G3C03]] (C) +Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions? + - A. Because it is the densest + - B. Because of the Doppler effect + - C. Because it is the highest + - D. Because of temperature inversions +-- +- [[G3C04]] (D) +What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation? + - A. The long path azimuth of a distant station + - B. The short path azimuth of a distant station + - C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions + - D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions +-- +- [[G3C05]] (C) +Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day? + - A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours + - C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours +-- +- [[G3C06]] (B) +What is a characteristic of HF scatter? + - A. Phone signals have high intelligibility + - B. Signals have a fluttering sound + - C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength + - D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night +-- +- [[G3C07]] (D) +What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? + - A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable + - B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal + - C. The E region is not present + - D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths +-- +- [[G3C08]] (A) +Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? + - A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone + - B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector + - C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy + - D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy +-- +- [[G3C09]] (B) +What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone? + - A. Faraday rotation + - B. Scatter + - C. Chordal hop + - D. Short-path +-- +- [[G3C10]] (B) +What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation? + - A. Propagation near the MUF + - B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles + - C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset + - D. Double hop propagation near the LUF +-- +- [[G3C11]] (D) +Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours? + - A. The F2 region + - B. The F1 region + - C. The E region + - D. The D region diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..451d402 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G3C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) + +- [[G3C01]] (A) +Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth? + - A. The D region + - B. The E region + - C. The F1 region + - D. The F2 region +- [[G3C02]] (A) +What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle? + - A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity + - D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB +- [[G3C03]] (C) +Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions? + - A. Because it is the densest + - B. Because of the Doppler effect + - C. Because it is the highest + - D. Because of temperature inversions +- [[G3C04]] (D) +What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation? + - A. The long path azimuth of a distant station + - B. The short path azimuth of a distant station + - C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions + - D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions +- [[G3C05]] (C) +Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day? + - A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours + - C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours +- [[G3C06]] (B) +What is a characteristic of HF scatter? + - A. Phone signals have high intelligibility + - B. Signals have a fluttering sound + - C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength + - D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night +- [[G3C07]] (D) +What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? + - A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable + - B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal + - C. The E region is not present + - D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths +- [[G3C08]] (A) +Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? + - A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone + - B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector + - C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy + - D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy +- [[G3C09]] (B) +What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone? + - A. Faraday rotation + - B. Scatter + - C. Chordal hop + - D. Short-path +- [[G3C10]] (B) +What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation? + - A. Propagation near the MUF + - B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles + - C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset + - D. Double hop propagation near the LUF +- [[G3C11]] (D) +Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours? + - A. The F2 region + - B. The F1 region + - C. The E region + - D. The D region diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3440ea7 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.965Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G4A – Station configuration and operation + +- [[G4A01]] (B) +What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers? + - A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth + - B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband + - C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources + - D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies +-- +- [[G4A02]] (C) +What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW? + - A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated + - B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband + - C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals + - D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented +-- +- [[G4A03]] (C) +How does a noise blanker work? + - A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth + - B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor + - C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse + - D. By clipping noise peaks +-- +- [[G4A04]] (B) +What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control? + - A. A pronounced peak + - B. A pronounced dip + - C. No change will be observed + - D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation +-- +- [[G4A05]] (C) +Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier? + - A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response + - B. To reduce harmonic radiation + - C. To prevent excessive drive + - D. To increase overall efficiency +-- +- [[G4A06]] (C) +What is the purpose of an antenna tuner? + - A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna + - B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna + - C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4A07]] (A) +What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased? + - A. Received signals may become distorted + - B. Received frequency may become unstable + - C. CW signals may become severely attenuated + - D. Received frequency may shift several kHz +-- +- [[G4A08]] (D) +What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? + - A. Minimum SWR on the antenna + - B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current + - C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current + - D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current +-- +- [[G4A09]] (C) +What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier? + - A. To prevent key clicks on CW + - B. To prevent transient overmodulation + - C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output + - D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level +-- +- [[G4A10]] (B) +What is the function of an electronic keyer? + - A. Automatic transmit/receive switching + - B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation + - C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter + - D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation +-- +- [[G4A11]] (B) +Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals? + - A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode + - B. The ALC action distorts the signal + - C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4A12]] (C) +Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver? + - A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once + - B. To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time + - C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another + - D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation +-- +- [[G4A13]] (A) +What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator? + - A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals + - B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier + - C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries + - D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..cd8a98c --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.567Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,79 @@ +G4A – Station configuration and operation + +- [[G4A01]] (B) +What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers? + - A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth + - B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband + - C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources + - D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies +- [[G4A02]] (C) +What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW? + - A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated + - B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband + - C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals + - D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented +- [[G4A03]] (C) +How does a noise blanker work? + - A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth + - B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor + - C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse + - D. By clipping noise peaks +- [[G4A04]] (B) +What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control? + - A. A pronounced peak + - B. A pronounced dip + - C. No change will be observed + - D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation +- [[G4A05]] (C) +Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier? + - A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response + - B. To reduce harmonic radiation + - C. To prevent excessive drive + - D. To increase overall efficiency +- [[G4A06]] (C) +What is the purpose of an antenna tuner? + - A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna + - B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna + - C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4A07]] (A) +What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased? + - A. Received signals may become distorted + - B. Received frequency may become unstable + - C. CW signals may become severely attenuated + - D. Received frequency may shift several kHz +- [[G4A08]] (D) +What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? + - A. Minimum SWR on the antenna + - B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current + - C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current + - D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current +- [[G4A09]] (C) +What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier? + - A. To prevent key clicks on CW + - B. To prevent transient overmodulation + - C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output + - D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level +- [[G4A10]] (B) +What is the function of an electronic keyer? + - A. Automatic transmit/receive switching + - B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation + - C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter + - D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation +- [[G4A11]] (B) +Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals? + - A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode + - B. The ALC action distorts the signal + - C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4A12]] (C) +Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver? + - A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once + - C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another + - D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation +- [[G4A13]] (A) +What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator? + - A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals + - B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier + - C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries + - D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..45aa565 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.964Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G4B – Tests and test equipment + +- [[G4B01]] (D) +What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? + - A. An ohmmeter + - B. A signal generator + - C. An ammeter + - D. An oscilloscope +-- +- [[G4B02]] (D) +Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter? + - A. An oscilloscope uses less power + - B. Complex impedances can be easily measured + - C. Greater precision + - D. Complex waveforms can be measured +-- +- [[G4B03]] (A) +Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter? + - A. An oscilloscope + - B. A field strength meter + - C. A sidetone monitor + - D. A wavemeter +-- +- [[G4B04]] (D) +What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal? + - A. The local oscillator of the transmitter + - B. An external RF oscillator + - C. The transmitter balanced mixer output + - D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter +-- +- [[G4B05]] (D) +Why do voltmeters have high input impedance? + - A. It improves the frequency response + - B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured + - C. It improves the resolution of the readings + - D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured +-- +- [[G4B06]] (C) +What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter? + - A. Better for measuring computer circuits + - B. Less prone to overload + - C. Higher precision + - D. Faster response +-- +- [[G4B07]] (B) +What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? + - A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees + - B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals + - C. Two swept frequency tones + - D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude +-- +- [[G4B08]] (A) +What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze? + - A. Linearity + - B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB + - C. Percentage of frequency modulation + - D. Percentage of carrier phase shift +-- +- [[G4B09]] (D) +When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter? + - A. When testing logic circuits + - B. When high precision is desired + - C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator + - D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values +-- +- [[G4B10]] (A) +Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter? + - A. Standing wave ratio + - B. Antenna front-to-back ratio + - C. RF interference + - D. Radio wave propagation +-- +- [[G4B11]] (C) +Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements? + - A. Receiver + - B. Transmitter + - C. Antenna and feed line + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4B12]] (B) +What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer? + - A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings + - B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings + - C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4B13]] (C) +Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer? + - A. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna + - B. Power output from a transmitter + - C. Impedance of coaxial cable + - D. Gain of a directional antenna diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ac40844 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.966Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding + +- [[G4C01]] (B) +Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits? + - A. Bypass inductor + - B. Bypass capacitor + - C. Forward-biased diode + - D. Reverse-biased diode +-- +- [[G4C02]] (C) +Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? + - A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas + - B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors + - C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection + - D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna +-- +- [[G4C03]] (C) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter? + - A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air + - B. On-and-off humming or clicking + - C. Distorted speech + - D. Clearly audible speech +-- +- [[G4C04]] (A) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter? + - A. On-and-off humming or clicking + - B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency + - C. A chirpy CW signal + - D. Severely distorted audio +-- +- [[G4C05]] (D) +What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns? + - A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire + - B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire + - C. The ground rod is resonant + - D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency +-- +- [[G4C06]] (C) +What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection? + - A. Overheating of ground straps + - B. Corrosion of the ground rod + - C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment + - D. A ground loop +-- +- [[G4C07]] (A) +Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections? + - A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike + - B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection + - C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4C08]] (A) +Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? + - A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable + - B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal + - C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference + - D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable +-- +- [[G4C09]] (D) +How can the effects of ground loops be minimized? + - A. Connect all ground conductors in series + - B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire + - C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections + - D. Bond equipment enclosures together +-- +- [[G4C10]] (A) +What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections? + - A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal + - B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high + - C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current + - D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station +-- +- [[G4C11]] (C) +What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station? + - A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure + - B. Using surge suppressor power outlets + - C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together + - D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines +-- +- [[G4C12]] (D) +Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded? + - A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit + - B. It prevents signal overload + - C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded + - D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.568Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.568Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..2f0fcdc --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.568Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding + +- [[G4C01]] (B) +Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits? + - A. Bypass inductor + - B. Bypass capacitor + - C. Forward-biased diode + - D. Reverse-biased diode +- [[G4C02]] (C) +Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? + - A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas + - B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors + - C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection + - D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna +- [[G4C03]] (C) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter? + - A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air + - B. On-and-off humming or clicking + - C. Distorted speech + - D. Clearly audible speech +- [[G4C04]] (A) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter? + - A. On-and-off humming or clicking + - B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency + - C. A chirpy CW signal + - D. Severely distorted audio +- [[G4C05]] (D) +What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns? + - A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire + - B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire + - C. The ground rod is resonant + - D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency +- [[G4C06]] (C) +What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection? + - A. Overheating of ground straps + - B. Corrosion of the ground rod + - C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment + - D. A ground loop +- [[G4C07]] (A) +Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections? + - A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike + - B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection + - C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4C08]] (A) +Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? + - A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable + - B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal + - C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference + - D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable +- [[G4C09]] (D) +How can the effects of ground loops be minimized? + - A. Connect all ground conductors in series + - B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire + - C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections + - D. Bond equipment enclosures together +- [[G4C10]] (A) +What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections? + - A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal + - B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high + - C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current + - D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station +- [[G4C11]] (C) +What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station? + - A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure + - B. Using surge suppressor power outlets + - C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together + - D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines +- [[G4C12]] (D) +Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded? + - A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit + - B. It prevents signal overload + - C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded + - D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3956f13 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges + +- [[G4D01]] (A) +What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver? + - A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals + - B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals + - C. Prevent distortion of voice signals + - D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation +-- +- [[G4D02]] (B) +How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal? + - A. It increases peak power + - B. It increases average power + - C. It reduces harmonic distortion + - D. It reduces intermodulation distortion +-- +- [[G4D03]] (D) +What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor? + - A. Distorted speech + - B. Excess intermodulation products + - C. Excessive background noise + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4D04]] (C) +What does an S meter measure? + - A. Carrier suppression + - B. Impedance + - C. Received signal strength + - D. Transmitter power output +-- +- [[G4D05]] (D) +How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter? + - A. It is 10 times less powerful + - B. It is 20 times less powerful + - C. It is 20 times more powerful + - D. It is 100 times more powerful +-- +- [[G4D06]] (A) +How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit? + - A. 6 dB + - B. 12 dB + - C. 15 dB + - D. 18 dB +-- +- [[G4D07]] (C) +How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9? + - A. Approximately 1.5 times + - B. Approximately 2 times + - C. Approximately 4 times + - D. Approximately 8 times +-- +- [[G4D08]] (C) +What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz? + - A. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz + - B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz + - C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz + - D. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz +-- +- [[G4D09]] (B) +What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? + - A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz + - B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz + - C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz + - D. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz +-- +- [[G4D10]] (A) +How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB? + - A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment + - B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment + - C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment + - D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment +-- +- [[G4D11]] (B) +How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB? + - A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band + - B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band + - C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment + - D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G4E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G4E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..718c503 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G4E/2025-05-01T18_48_55.967Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation + +- [[G4E01]] (C) +What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna? + - A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna + - B. To reduce radiation resistance + - C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna + - D. To lower the radiation angle +-- +- [[G4E02]] (D) +What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna? + - A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna + - B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna + - C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object + - D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting +-- +- [[G4E03]] (A) +Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation? + - A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire + - B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire + - C. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line + - D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line +-- +- [[G4E04]] (B) +Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket? + - A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable + - B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver + - C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers + - D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat +-- +- [[G4E05]] (C) +Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation? + - A. “Picket fencing” + - B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver + - C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna + - D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band +-- +- [[G4E06]] (C) +What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna? + - A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals + - B. Q of the antenna will be very low + - C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited + - D. Harmonic radiation may increase +-- +- [[G4E07]] (D) +Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle? + - A. The battery charging system + - B. The fuel delivery system + - C. The control computers + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G4E08]] (A) +In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together? + - A. Series-parallel + - B. Shunt + - C. Bypass + - D. Full-wave bridge +-- +- [[G4E09]] (B) +What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? + - A. 0.02 VDC + - B. 0.5 VDC + - C. 0.2 VDC + - D. 1.38 VDC +-- +- [[G4E10]] (B) +Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel? + - A. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage + - B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination + - C. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value + - D. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels +-- +- [[G4E11]] (D) +What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery? + - A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework + - B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up + - C. A series resistor must be in place + - D. The solar panel must have a charge controller diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5f5bfa5 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G5A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance + +- [[G5A01]] (C) +What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit? + - A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high + - B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance + - C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low + - D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance +-- +- [[G5A02]] (B) +What is reactance? + - A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance + - B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance + - C. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance + - D. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance +-- +- [[G5A03]] (D) +Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor? + - A. Conductance + - B. Reluctance + - C. Admittance + - D. Reactance +-- +- [[G5A04]] (C) +Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor? + - A. Conductance + - B. Reluctance + - C. Reactance + - D. Admittance +-- +- [[G5A05]] (D) +How does an inductor react to AC? + - A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases +-- +- [[G5A06]] (A) +How does a capacitor react to AC? + - A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases +-- +- [[G5A07]] (D) +What is the term for the inverse of impedance? + - A. Conductance + - B. Susceptance + - C. Reluctance + - D. Admittance +-- +- [[G5A08]] (C) +What is impedance? + - A. The ratio of current to voltage + - B. The product of current and voltage + - C. The ratio of voltage to current + - D. The product of current and reactance +-- +- [[G5A09]] (B) +What unit is used to measure reactance? + - A. Farad + - B. Ohm + - C. Ampere + - D. Siemens +-- +- [[G5A10]] (D) +Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies? + - A. A transformer + - B. A Pi-network + - C. A length of transmission line + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G5A11]] (B) +What letter is used to represent reactance? + - A. Z + - B. X + - C. B + - D. Y +-- +- [[G5A12]] (D) +What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance? + - A. Current and voltage are equal + - B. Resistance is cancelled + - C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves + - D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8fb15ce --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G5B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.968Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,99 @@ +G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations + +- [[G5B01]] (B) +What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power? + - A. Approximately 2 dB + - B. Approximately 3 dB + - C. Approximately 6 dB + - D. Approximately 9 dB +-- +- [[G5B02]] (C) +How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors? + - A. It equals the average of the branch currents + - B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit + - C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch + - D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop +-- +- [[G5B03]] (B) +How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load? + - A. 0.5 watts + - B. 200 watts + - C. 400 watts + - D. 3200 watts +-- +- [[G5B04]] (A) +How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes? + - A. 2.4 watts + - B. 24 watts + - C. 6 watts + - D. 60 watts +-- +- [[G5B05]] (A) +How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance? + - A. Approximately 61 milliwatts + - B. Approximately 61 watts + - C. Approximately 11 milliwatts + - D. Approximately 11 watts +-- +- [[G5B06]] (B) +What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load? + - A. 1.4 watts + - B. 100 watts + - C. 353.5 watts + - D. 400 watts +-- +- [[G5B07]] (C) +What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value? + - A. The peak-to-peak value + - B. The peak value + - C. The RMS value + - D. The reciprocal of the RMS value +-- +- [[G5B08]] (D) +What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts? + - A. 84.8 volts + - B. 169.7 volts + - C. 240.0 volts + - D. 339.4 volts +-- +- [[G5B09]] (B) +What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak? + - A. 8.5 volts + - B. 12 volts + - C. 24 volts + - D. 34 volts +-- +- [[G5B10]] (C) +What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB? + - A. 10.9 percent + - B. 12.2 percent + - C. 20.6 percent + - D. 25.9 percent +-- +- [[G5B11]] (B) +What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier? + - A. 0.707 + - B. 1.00 + - C. 1.414 + - D. 2.00 +-- +- [[G5B12]] (B) +What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? + - A. 173 volts + - B. 245 volts + - C. 346 volts + - D. 692 volts +-- +- [[G5B13]] (B) +What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts? + - A. 530 watts + - B. 1060 watts + - C. 1500 watts + - D. 2120 watts +-- +- [[G5B14]] (B) +What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load? + - A. 8.75 watts + - B. 625 watts + - C. 2500 watts + - D. 5000 watts diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G5C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G5C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..d291391 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G5C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,99 @@ +G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers + +- [[G5C01]] (C) +What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding? + - A. Capacitive coupling + - B. Displacement current coupling + - C. Mutual inductance + - D. Mutual capacitance +-- +- [[G5C02]] (A) +What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding? + - A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4 + - B. The input voltage is divided by 4 + - C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload + - D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload +-- +- [[G5C03]] (A) +What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel? + - A. 5.9 ohms + - B. 0.17 ohms + - C. 17 ohms + - D. 80 ohms +-- +- [[G5C04]] (D) +What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel? + - A. 300 ohms + - B. 150 ohms + - C. 75 ohms + - D. 67 ohms +-- +- [[G5C05]] (B) +Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding? + - A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary + - B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary + - C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary + - D. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding +-- +- [[G5C06]] (A) +What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary? + - A. 360 volts + - B. 120 volts + - C. 40 volts + - D. 25.5 volts +-- +- [[G5C07]] (A) +What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable? + - A. 3.5 to 1 + - B. 12 to 1 + - C. 24 to 1 + - D. 144 to 1 +-- +- [[G5C08]] (D) +What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel? + - A. 576.9 nanofarads + - B. 1,733 picofarads + - C. 3,583 picofarads + - D. 10.750 nanofarads +-- +- [[G5C09]] (C) +What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series? + - A. 0.33 microfarads + - B. 3.0 microfarads + - C. 33.3 microfarads + - D. 300 microfarads +-- +- [[G5C10]] (C) +What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel? + - A. 0.30 henries + - B. 3.3 henries + - C. 3.3 millihenries + - D. 30 millihenries +-- +- [[G5C11]] (C) +What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor? + - A. 7 millihenries + - B. 14.3 millihenries + - C. 70 millihenries + - D. 1,000 millihenries +-- +- [[G5C12]] (B) +What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor? + - A. 0.07 microfarads + - B. 14.3 microfarads + - C. 70 microfarads + - D. 1,000 microfarads +-- +- [[G5C13]] (C) +Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance? + - A. An inductor in series + - B. An inductor in parallel + - C. A capacitor in parallel + - D. A capacitor in series +-- +- [[G5C14]] (D) +Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance? + - A. A capacitor in series + - B. A capacitor in parallel + - C. An inductor in parallel + - D. An inductor in series diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..661ac41 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.969Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries + +- [[G6A01]] (C) +What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery? + - A. 6 volts + - B. 8.5 volts + - C. 10.5 volts + - D. 12 volts +-- +- [[G6A02]] (B) +What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance? + - A. Long life + - B. High discharge current + - C. High voltage + - D. Rapid recharge +-- +- [[G6A03]] (B) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode? + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +-- +- [[G6A04]] (C) +Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor? + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. Much less leakage than any other type + - C. High capacitance for a given volume + - D. Inexpensive RF capacitor +-- +- [[G6A05]] (C) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode? + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +-- +- [[G6A06]] (B) +Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits? + - A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate + - B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable + - C. The resistor could overheat + - D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit +-- +- [[G6A07]] (A) +What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch? + - A. Saturation and cutoff + - B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation) + - C. Peak and valley current points + - D. Enhancement and depletion modes +-- +- [[G6A08]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors? + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. High stability + - C. High capacitance for given volume + - D. Comparatively low cost +-- +- [[G6A09]] (B) +Which of the following describes MOSFET construction? + - A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction + - B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer + - C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer + - D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon +-- +- [[G6A10]] (A) +Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? + - A. Control grid + - B. Suppressor grid + - C. Screen grid + - D. Trigger electrode +-- +- [[G6A11]] (C) +What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency? + - A. Its reactance increases + - B. Harmonics are generated + - C. It becomes capacitive + - D. Catastrophic failure is likely +-- +- [[G6A12]] (A) +What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? + - A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance + - B. To increase efficiency + - C. To increase the control grid resistance + - D. To decrease plate resistance diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3196e92 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G6A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries + +- [[G6A01]] (C) +What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery? + - A. 6 volts + - B. 8.5 volts + - C. 10.5 volts + - D. 12 volts +- [[G6A02]] (B) +What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance? + - A. Long life + - B. High discharge current + - C. High voltage + - D. Rapid recharge +- [[G6A03]] (B) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode? + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +- [[G6A04]] (C) +Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor? + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. Much less leakage than any other type + - C. High capacitance for a given volume + - D. Inexpensive RF capacitor +- [[G6A05]] (C) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode? + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +- [[G6A06]] (B) +Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits? + - A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate + - B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable + - C. The resistor could overheat + - D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit +- [[G6A07]] (A) +What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch? + - A. Saturation and cutoff + - B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation) + - C. Peak and valley current points + - D. Enhancement and depletion modes +- [[G6A08]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors? + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. High stability + - C. High capacitance for given volume + - D. Comparatively low cost +- [[G6A09]] (B) +Which of the following describes MOSFET construction? + - A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction + - B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer + - C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer + - D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon +- [[G6A10]] (A) +Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? + - A. Control grid + - B. Suppressor grid + - C. Screen grid + - D. Trigger electrode +- [[G6A11]] (C) +What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency? + - A. Its reactance increases + - B. Harmonics are generated + - C. It becomes capacitive + - D. Catastrophic failure is likely +- [[G6A12]] (A) +What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? + - A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance + - B. To increase efficiency + - C. To increase the control grid resistance + - D. To decrease plate resistance diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G6B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G6B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..dc4bfd0 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G6B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.970Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,81 @@ +G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores + +- [[G6B01]] (C) +What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies? + - A. Its conductivity + - B. Its thickness + - C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used + - D. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter +-- +- [[G6B02]] (B) +What is meant by the term MMIC? + - A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit + - B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit + - C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit + - D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit +-- +- [[G6B03]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits? + - A. Low power consumption + - B. High power handling capability + - C. Better suited for RF amplification + - D. Better suited for power supply regulation +-- +- [[G6B04]] (C) +What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors? + - A. 50 MHz + - B. 500 MHz + - C. 4 GHz + - D. 40 GHz +-- +- [[G6B05]] (D) +What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor? + - A. Large values of inductance may be obtained + - B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies + - C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G6B06]] (D) +What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? + - A. Digital + - B. MMIC + - C. Programmable Logic + - D. Analog +-- +- [[G6B07]] (A) +Which of the following describes a type N connector? + - A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz + - B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits + - C. A low noise figure VHF connector + - D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259 +-- +- [[G6B08]] (D) +How is an LED biased when emitting light? + - A. In the tunnel-effect region + - B. At the Zener voltage + - C. Reverse biased + - D. Forward biased +-- +- [[G6B09]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + +- [[G6B10]] (A) +How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable? + - A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path + - B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current + - C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current + - D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields +-- +- [[G6B11]] (B) +What is an SMA connector? + - A. A type-S to type-M adaptor + - B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz + - C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals + - D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications +-- +- [[G6B12]] (C) +Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver? + - A. PL-259 + - B. BNC + - C. RCA Phono + - D. Type N diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.971Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.971Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c50a90f --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.971Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols + +- [[G7A01]] (B) +What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor? + - A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage + - B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed + - C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils + - D. It eliminates ground loop current +-- +- [[G7A02]] (C) +Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network? + - A. Diodes + - B. Transformers and transducers + - C. Capacitors and inductors + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G7A03]] (A) +Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer? + - A. Full-wave + - B. Full-wave bridge + - C. Half-wave + - D. Synchronous +-- +- [[G7A04]] (A) +What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply? + - A. Only one diode is required + - B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier + - C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier + - D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage +-- +- [[G7A05]] (B) +What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier? + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +-- +- [[G7A06]] (D) +What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier? + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +-- +- [[G7A07]] (A) +What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? + - A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input + - B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input + - C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input + - D. A steady DC voltage +-- +- [[G7A08]] (C) +Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply? + - A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible + - B. Fewer circuit components are required + - C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components + - D. Inherently more stable +-- +- [[G7A09]] (C) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? + - A. Symbol 2 + - B. Symbol 5 + - C. Symbol 1 + - D. Symbol 4 +-- +- [[G7A10]] (D) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 1 + - C. Symbol 11 + - D. Symbol 5 +-- +- [[G7A11]] (B) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? + - A. Symbol 1 + - B. Symbol 2 + - C. Symbol 7 + - D. Symbol 11 +-- +- [[G7A12]] (C) +Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer? + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 7 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 +-- +- [[G7A13]] (A) +Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? + - A. Symbol 7 + - B. Symbol 11 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6f9ba1e --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.571Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols + +- [[G7A01]] (B) +What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor? + - A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage + - B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed + - C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils + - D. It eliminates ground loop current +- [[G7A02]] (C) +Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network? + - A. Diodes + - B. Transformers and transducers + - C. Capacitors and inductors + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G7A03]] (A) +Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer? + - A. Full-wave + - B. Full-wave bridge + - C. Half-wave + - D. Synchronous +- [[G7A04]] (A) +What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply? + - A. Only one diode is required + - B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier + - C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier + - D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage +- [[G7A05]] (B) +What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier? + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +- [[G7A06]] (D) +What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier? + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +- [[G7A07]] (A) +What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? + - A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input + - B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input + - C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input + - D. A steady DC voltage +- [[G7A08]] (C) +Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply? + - A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible + - B. Fewer circuit components are required + - C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components + - D. Inherently more stable +- [[G7A09]] (C) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? + - A. Symbol 2 + - B. Symbol 5 + - C. Symbol 1 + - D. Symbol 4 +- [[G7A10]] (D) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 1 + - C. Symbol 11 + - D. Symbol 5 +- [[G7A11]] (B) +Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? + - A. Symbol 1 + - B. Symbol 2 + - C. Symbol 7 + - D. Symbol 11 +- [[G7A12]] (C) +Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer? + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 7 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 +- [[G7A13]] (A) +Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? + - A. Symbol 7 + - B. Symbol 11 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..167c6fa --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators + +- [[G7B01]] (B) +What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier? + - A. To limit the modulation index + - B. To eliminate self-oscillations + - C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods + - D. To keep the carrier on frequency +-- +- [[G7B02]] (D) +Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? + - A. Class A + - B. Class B + - C. Class AB + - D. Class C +-- +- [[G7B03]] (B) +Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate? + - A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low + - B. Output is high only when both inputs are high + - C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high + - D. Output is low only when both inputs are high +-- +- [[G7B04]] (A) +In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct? + - A. 100% + - B. More than 50% but less than 100% + - C. 50% + - D. Less than 50% +-- +- [[G7B05]] (C) +How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? + - A. 3 + - B. 6 + - C. 8 + - D. 16 +-- +- [[G7B06]] (A) +What is a shift register? + - A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array + - B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations + - C. A digital mixer + - D. An analog mixer +-- +- [[G7B07]] (D) +Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator? + - A. An amplifier and a divider + - B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer + - C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop + - D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop +-- +- [[G7B08]] (B) +How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? + - A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power + - B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power + - C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power + - D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power +-- +- [[G7B09]] (C) +What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator? + - A. The number of stages in the counter + - B. The number of stages in the divider + - C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit + - D. The time delay of the lag circuit +-- +- [[G7B10]] (B) +Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? + - A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver + - B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform + - C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier + - D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier +-- +- [[G7B11]] (B) +For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? + - A. SSB + - B. FM + - C. AM + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ffe89d0 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7B/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators + +- [[G7B01]] (B) +What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier? + - A. To limit the modulation index + - B. To eliminate self-oscillations + - C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods + - D. To keep the carrier on frequency +- [[G7B02]] (D) +Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? + - A. Class A + - B. Class B + - C. Class AB + - D. Class C +- [[G7B03]] (B) +Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate? + - A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low + - B. Output is high only when both inputs are high + - C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high + - D. Output is low only when both inputs are high +- [[G7B04]] (A) +In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct? + - A. 100% + - B. More than 50% but less than 100% + - C. 50% + - D. Less than 50% +- [[G7B05]] (C) +How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? + - A. 3 + - B. 6 + - C. 8 + - D. 16 +- [[G7B06]] (A) +What is a shift register? + - A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array + - B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations + - C. A digital mixer + - D. An analog mixer +- [[G7B07]] (D) +Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator? + - A. An amplifier and a divider + - B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer + - C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop + - D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop +- [[G7B08]] (B) +How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? + - A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power + - B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power + - C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power + - D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power +- [[G7B09]] (C) +What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator? + - A. The number of stages in the counter + - B. The number of stages in the divider + - C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit + - D. The time delay of the lag circuit +- [[G7B10]] (B) +Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? + - A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver + - B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform + - C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier + - D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier +- [[G7B11]] (B) +For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? + - A. SSB + - B. FM + - C. AM + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G7C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G7C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..2b03d02 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G7C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.972Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,99 @@ +G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP) + +- [[G7C01]] (B) +What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator? + - A. Carrier oscillator + - B. Filter + - C. IF amplifier + - D. RF amplifier +-- +- [[G7C02]] (D) +What output is produced by a balanced modulator? + - A. Frequency modulated RF + - B. Audio with equalized frequency response + - C. Audio extracted from the modulation signal + - D. Double-sideband modulated RF +-- +- [[G7C03]] (B) +What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output? + - A. To minimize transmitter power output + - B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line + - C. To reduce power supply ripple + - D. To minimize radiation resistance +-- +- [[G7C04]] (D) +How is a product detector used? + - A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products + - B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication + - C. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands + - D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal +-- +- [[G7C05]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? + - A. Extremely narrow tuning range + - B. Relatively high-power output + - C. Pure sine wave output + - D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator +-- +- [[G7C06]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter? + - A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created + - B. Fewer digital components are required + - C. Mixing products are greatly reduced + - D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies +-- +- [[G7C07]] (A) +What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband? + - A. Insertion loss + - B. Return loss + - C. Q + - D. Ultimate rejection +-- +- [[G7C08]] (D) +Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity? + - A. Input amplifier gain + - B. Demodulator stage bandwidth + - C. Input amplifier noise figure + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G7C09]] (B) +What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation? + - A. Zero + - B. 90 degrees + - C. 180 degrees + - D. 45 degrees +-- +- [[G7C10]] (B) +What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)? + - A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated + - B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing + - C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced + - D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog +-- +- [[G7C11]] (D) +Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)? + - A. Filtering + - B. Detection + - C. Modulation + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G7C12]] (C) +What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power? + - A. Notch frequency + - B. Neper frequency + - C. Cutoff frequency + - D. Rolloff frequency +-- +- [[G7C13]] (D) +What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband? + - A. Notch depth + - B. Rolloff + - C. Insertion loss + - D. Ultimate rejection +-- +- [[G7C14]] (A) +The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies? + - A. Upper and lower half-power + - B. Cutoff and rolloff + - C. Pole and zero + - D. Image and harmonic diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6d63c42 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,99 @@ +G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins + +- [[G8A01]] (B) +How is direct binary FSK modulation generated? + - A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone + - B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal + - C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies + - D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator +-- +- [[G8A02]] (B) +What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information? + - A. Phase convolution + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Phase transformation + - D. Phase inversion +-- +- [[G8A03]] (D) +What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information? + - A. Frequency convolution + - B. Frequency transformation + - C. Frequency conversion + - D. Frequency modulation +-- +- [[G8A04]] (B) +What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage? + - A. Multiplex modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Amplitude modulation + - D. Pulse modulation +-- +- [[G8A05]] (D) +What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? + - A. Power modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Frequency modulation + - D. Amplitude modulation +-- +- [[G8A06]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31? + - A. It is sideband sensitive + - B. Its encoding provides error correction + - C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31 + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G8A07]] (A) +Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth? + - A. Single sideband + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Phase modulation + - D. Frequency modulation +-- +- [[G8A08]] (D) +Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation? + - A. Insufficient audio + - B. Insufficient bandwidth + - C. Frequency drift + - D. Excessive bandwidth +-- +- [[G8A09]] (A) +What type of modulation is used by FT8? + - A. 8-tone frequency shift keying + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Amplitude compressed AM + - D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum +-- +- [[G8A10]] (C) +What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal? + - A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current + - B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted + - C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels + - D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed +-- +- [[G8A11]] (A) +What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal? + - A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal + - B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal + - C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies + - D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal +-- +- [[G8A12]] (D) +What is QPSK modulation? + - A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth + - B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals + - C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity + - D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits +-- +- [[G8A13]] (C) +What is a link budget? + - A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link + - B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses + - C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver + - D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity +-- +- [[G8A14]] (B) +What is link margin? + - A. The opposite of fade margin + - B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver + - C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity + - D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..b9a3821 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G8A/2025-05-01T18_49_27.572Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins + +- [[G8A01]] (B) +How is direct binary FSK modulation generated? + - A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone + - B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal + - C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies + - D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator +- [[G8A02]] (B) +What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information? + - A. Phase convolution + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Phase transformation + - D. Phase inversion +- [[G8A03]] (D) +What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information? + - A. Frequency convolution + - B. Frequency transformation + - C. Frequency conversion + - D. Frequency modulation +- [[G8A04]] (B) +What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage? + - A. Multiplex modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Amplitude modulation + - D. Pulse modulation +- [[G8A05]] (D) +What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? + - A. Power modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Frequency modulation + - D. Amplitude modulation +- [[G8A06]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31? + - A. It is sideband sensitive + - B. Its encoding provides error correction + - C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31 + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G8A07]] (A) +Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth? + - A. Single sideband + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Phase modulation + - D. Frequency modulation +- [[G8A08]] (D) +Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation? + - A. Insufficient audio + - B. Insufficient bandwidth + - C. Frequency drift + - D. Excessive bandwidth +- [[G8A09]] (A) +What type of modulation is used by FT8? + - A. 8-tone frequency shift keying + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Amplitude compressed AM + - D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum +- [[G8A10]] (C) +What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal? + - A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current + - B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted + - C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels + - D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed +- [[G8A11]] (A) +What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal? + - A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal + - B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal + - C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies + - D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal +- [[G8A12]] (D) +What is QPSK modulation? + - A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth + - B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals + - C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity + - D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits +- [[G8A13]] (C) +What is a link budget? + - A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link + - B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses + - C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver + - D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity +- [[G8A14]] (B) +What is link margin? + - A. The opposite of fade margin + - B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver + - C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity + - D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..2176416 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G8B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.973Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation + +- [[G8B01]] (B) +Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)? + - A. Image frequency + - B. Local oscillator + - C. RF input + - D. Beat frequency oscillator +-- +- [[G8B02]] (B) +What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal? + - A. Quadrature response + - B. Image response + - C. Mixer interference + - D. Intermediate interference +-- +- [[G8B03]] (A) +What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals? + - A. Heterodyning + - B. Synthesizing + - C. Frequency inversion + - D. Phase inversion +-- +- [[G8B04]] (D) +What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency? + - A. Mixer + - B. Reactance modulator + - C. Balanced converter + - D. Multiplier +-- +- [[G8B05]] (C) +Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies? + - A. Second harmonics + - B. Even-order + - C. Odd-order + - D. Intercept point +-- +- [[G8B06]] (D) +What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency? + - A. 3 kHz + - B. 5 kHz + - C. 8 kHz + - D. 16 kHz +-- +- [[G8B07]] (B) +What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter? + - A. 101.75 Hz + - B. 416.7 Hz + - C. 5 kHz + - D. 60 kHz +-- +- [[G8B08]] (B) +Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting? + - A. To aid in tuning your transmitter + - B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating + - C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission + - D. To prevent overmodulation +-- +- [[G8B09]] (D) +Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode? + - A. It is required by FCC rules + - B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver + - C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna + - D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio +-- +- [[G8B10]] (B) +What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth? + - A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related + - B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth + - C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth + - D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate +-- +- [[G8B11]] (C) +What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output? + - A. The ratio + - B. The average + - C. The sum and difference + - D. The arithmetic product +-- +- [[G8B12]] (A) +What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs? + - A. Intermodulation + - B. Heterodyning + - C. Detection + - D. Rolloff +-- +- [[G8B13]] (C) +Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2? + - A. 5F1-3F2 + - B. 3F1-F2 + - C. 2F1-F2 + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G8C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G8C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c751f79 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G8C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,113 @@ +G8C – Digital emission modes + +- [[G8C01]] (C) +On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service? + - A. 432 MHz + - B. 902 MHz + - C. 2.4 GHz + - D. 10.7 GHz +-- +- [[G8C02]] (A) +Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation? + - A. WSPR + - B. MFSK16 + - C. PSK31 + - D. SSB-SC +-- +- [[G8C03]] (C) +What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information? + - A. Directory + - B. Preamble + - C. Header + - D. Trailer +-- +- [[G8C04]] (C) +Which of the following describes Baudot code? + - A. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits + - B. A code using error detection and correction + - C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits + - D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN +-- +- [[G8C05]] (A) +In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet? + - A. Request retransmission of the packet + - B. Packet was received without error + - C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions + - D. Entire file received correctly +-- +- [[G8C06]] (B) +What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode? + - A. The checksum overflows + - B. The connection is dropped + - C. Packets will be routed incorrectly + - D. Encoding reverts to the default character set +-- +- [[G8C07]] (B) +Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios? + - A. MSK144 + - B. FT8 + - C. AMTOR + - D. MFSK32 +-- +- [[G8C08]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true about PSK31? + - A. Upper case letters are sent with more power + - B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission + - C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception + - D. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates +-- +- [[G8C09]] (B) +Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes? + - A. Having more nodes increases signal strengths + - B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node + - C. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths + - D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference +-- +- [[G8C10]] (C) +How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors? + - A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength + - B. By using the Varicode character set + - C. By transmitting redundant information with the data + - D. By using a parity bit with each character +-- +- [[G8C11]] (D) +How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified? + - A. Dot and dash + - B. On and off + - C. High and low + - D. Mark and space +-- +- [[G8C12]] (A) +Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal? + - A. Varicode + - B. Viterbi + - C. Volumetric + - D. Binary +-- +- [[G8C13]] (D) +What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal? + - A. Long path propagation + - B. Backscatter propagation + - C. Insufficient modulation + - D. Overmodulation +-- +- [[G8C14]] (C) +Which of the following describes a waterfall display? + - A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity + - B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal + - C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical + - D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity +-- +- [[G8C15]] (C) +What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean? + - A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal + - B. The signal is S3 (weak signals) + - C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth + - D. The signal is 3 dB over S9 +-- +- [[G8C16]] (D) +Which of the following provide digital voice modes? + - A. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL + - B. FT8, FT4, and FST4 + - C. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III + - D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..7df92d9 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9A/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,78 @@ +G9A – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching + +- [[G9A01]] (A) +Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line? + - A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors + - B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line + - C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal + - D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line +-- +- [[G9A02]] (B) +What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss? + - A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR + - B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line + - C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss + - D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss +-- +- [[G9A03]] (D) +What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line? + - A. 50 ohms + - B. 75 ohms + - C. 100 ohms + - D. 450 ohms +-- +- [[G9A04]] (C) +What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point? + - A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency + - B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle + - C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance + - D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line +-- +- [[G9A05]] (B) +How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency? + - A. Attenuation is independent of frequency + - B. Attenuation increases + - C. Attenuation decreases + - D. Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation +-- +- [[G9A06]] (D) +In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed? + - A. Ohms per 1,000 feet + - B. Decibels per 1,000 feet + - C. Ohms per 100 feet + - D. Decibels per 100 feet +-- +- [[G9A07]] (D) +What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna? + - A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential + - B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long + - C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long + - D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line +-- +- [[G9A08]] (B) +If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line? + - A. 1:1 + - B. 5:1 + - C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line + - D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter +-- +- [[G9A09]] (A) +What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load? + - A. 4:1 + - B. 1:4 + - C. 2:1 + - D. 1:2 +-- +- [[G9A10]] (D) +What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load? + - A. 2:1 + - B. 1:2 + - C. 1:5 + - D. 5:1 +-- +- [[G9A11]] (A) +What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line? + - A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line + - B. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line + - C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line + - D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.976Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.976Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..e1a1459 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9B/2025-05-01T18_48_55.976Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G9B – Basic dipole and monopole antennas + +- [[G9B01]] (B) +What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter? + - A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength + - B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current + - C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation + - D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands +-- +- [[G9B02]] (B) +Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms? + - A. Slope the radials upward + - B. Slope the radials downward + - C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength + - D. Coil the radials +-- +- [[G9B03]] (D) +Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna? + - A. Bi-directional in azimuth + - B. Isotropic + - C. Hemispherical + - D. Omnidirectional in azimuth +-- +- [[G9B04]] (A) +What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor? + - A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna + - B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna + - C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) + - D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side +-- +- [[G9B05]] (C) +How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees? + - A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable + - B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern + - C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional + - D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated +-- +- [[G9B06]] (C) +Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed? + - A. As high as possible above the ground + - B. Parallel to the antenna element + - C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground + - D. At the center of the antenna +-- +- [[G9B07]] (B) +How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground? + - A. It steadily increases + - B. It steadily decreases + - C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground + - D. It is unaffected by the height above ground +-- +- [[G9B08]] (A) +How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends? + - A. It steadily increases + - B. It steadily decreases + - C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end + - D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point +-- +- [[G9B09]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna? + - A. Lower ground losses + - B. Lower feed point impedance + - C. Shorter radials + - D. Lower radiation resistance +-- +- [[G9B10]] (D) +What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz? + - A. 8 feet + - B. 16 feet + - C. 24 feet + - D. 33 feet +-- +- [[G9B11]] (C) +What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz? + - A. 42 feet + - B. 84 feet + - C. 132 feet + - D. 263 feet +-- +- [[G9B12]] (A) +What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz? + - A. 8 feet + - B. 11 feet + - C. 16 feet + - D. 21 feet diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..d02d2f2 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_48_55.975Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,81 @@ +G9C – Directional antennas + +- [[G9C01]] (A) +Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? + - A. Larger-diameter elements + - B. Closer element spacing + - C. Loading coils in series with the element + - D. Tapered-diameter elements +-- +- [[G9C02]] (B) +What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna? + - A. 1/4 wavelength + - B. 1/2 wavelength + - C. 3/4 wavelength + - D. 1 wavelength +-- +- [[G9C03]] (A) +How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element? + - A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter + - B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer + - C. They are all the same length + - D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation +-- +- [[G9C04]] (B) +How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna? + - A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower + - B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher + - C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower + - D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher +-- +- [[G9C05]] (A) +What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna? + - A. Gain increases + - B. Beamwidth increases + - C. Front-to-back ratio decreases + - D. Resonant frequency is lower +-- +- [[G9C06]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + +- [[G9C07]] (C) +What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? + - A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors + - B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors + - C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction + - D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain +-- +- [[G9C08]] (D) +What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna? + - A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation + - B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element + - C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element + - D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna +-- +- [[G9C09]] (B) +In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi? + - A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher + - B. Approximately 3 dB higher + - C. Approximately 6 dB higher + - D. Approximately 9 dB higher +-- +- [[G9C10]] (D) +Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? + - A. The physical length of the boom + - B. The number of elements on the boom + - C. The spacing of each element along the boom + - D. All these choices are correct +-- +- [[G9C11]] (A) +What is a beta or hairpin match? + - A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching + - B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching + - C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna + - D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna +-- +- [[G9C12]] (A) +Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna? + - A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom + - B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors + - C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.573Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.573Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5f931fe --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9C/2025-05-01T18_49_27.573Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,71 @@ +G9C – Directional antennas + +- [[G9C01]] (A) +Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? + - A. Larger-diameter elements + - B. Closer element spacing + - C. Loading coils in series with the element + - D. Tapered-diameter elements +- [[G9C02]] (B) +What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna? + - A. 1/4 wavelength + - B. 1/2 wavelength + - C. 3/4 wavelength + - D. 1 wavelength +- [[G9C03]] (A) +How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element? + - A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter + - B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer + - C. They are all the same length + - D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation +- [[G9C04]] (B) +How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna? + - A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower + - B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher + - C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower + - D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher +- [[G9C05]] (A) +What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna? + - A. Gain increases + - B. Beamwidth increases + - C. Front-to-back ratio decreases + - D. Resonant frequency is lower +- [[G9C06]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + +- [[G9C07]] (C) +What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? + - A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors + - B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors + - C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction + - D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain +- [[G9C08]] (D) +What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna? + - A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation + - B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element + - C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element + - D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna +- [[G9C09]] (B) +In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi? + - A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher + - B. Approximately 3 dB higher + - C. Approximately 6 dB higher + - D. Approximately 9 dB higher +- [[G9C10]] (D) +Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? + - A. The physical length of the boom + - B. The number of elements on the boom + - C. The spacing of each element along the boom + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G9C11]] (A) +What is a beta or hairpin match? + - A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching + - B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching + - C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna + - D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna +- [[G9C12]] (A) +Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna? + - A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom + - B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors + - C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..db9a97f --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_48_55.974Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications + +- [[G9D01]] (A) +Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day? + - A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground + - B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground +-- +- [[G9D02]] (D) +What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna? + - A. Very low + - B. Approximately 50 ohms + - C. Approximately 300 ohms + - D. Very high +-- +- [[G9D03]] (C) +In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna? + - A. Broadside to the plane of the halo + - B. Opposite the feed point + - C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo + - D. On the same side as the feed point +-- +- [[G9D04]] (A) +What is the primary function of antenna traps? + - A. To enable multiband operation + - B. To notch spurious frequencies + - C. To provide balanced feed point impedance + - D. To prevent out-of-band operation +-- +- [[G9D05]] (D) +What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas? + - A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization + - B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization + - C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth + - D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation +-- +- [[G9D06]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna? + - A. Wide bandwidth + - B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna + - C. Harmonic suppression + - D. Polarization diversity +-- +- [[G9D07]] (A) +Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna? + - A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom + - B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency + - C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency + - D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length +-- +- [[G9D08]] (B) +How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance? + - A. By varying its body capacitance + - B. By varying the base loading inductance + - C. By extending and retracting the whip + - D. By deploying a capacitance hat +-- +- [[G9D09]] (A) +What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna? + - A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands + - B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands + - C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies + - D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies +-- +- [[G9D10]] (B) +In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern? + - A. In the plane of the loop + - B. Broadside to the loop + - C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop + - D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional +-- +- [[G9D11]] (D) +Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas? + - A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies + - B. They must be used with an antenna tuner + - C. They must be fed with open wire line + - D. They have poor harmonic rejection +-- +- [[G9D12]] (A) +What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support? + - A. Inverted V + - B. Inverted L + - C. Sloper + - D. Lazy H +-- +- [[G9D13]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + + +SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] + diff --git a/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.574Z.Desktop.md b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.574Z.Desktop.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..e41358d --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/bak/pages/G9D/2025-05-01T18_49_27.574Z.Desktop.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications + +- [[G9D01]] (A) +Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day? + - A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground + - B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground +- [[G9D02]] (D) +What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna? + - A. Very low + - B. Approximately 50 ohms + - C. Approximately 300 ohms + - D. Very high +- [[G9D03]] (C) +In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna? + - A. Broadside to the plane of the halo + - B. Opposite the feed point + - C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo + - D. On the same side as the feed point +- [[G9D04]] (A) +What is the primary function of antenna traps? + - A. To enable multiband operation + - B. To notch spurious frequencies + - C. To provide balanced feed point impedance + - D. To prevent out-of-band operation +- [[G9D05]] (D) +What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas? + - A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization + - B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization + - C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth + - D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation +- [[G9D06]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna? + - A. Wide bandwidth + - B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna + - C. Harmonic suppression + - D. Polarization diversity +- [[G9D07]] (A) +Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna? + - A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom + - B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency + - C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency + - D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length +- [[G9D08]] (B) +How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance? + - A. By varying its body capacitance + - B. By varying the base loading inductance + - C. By extending and retracting the whip + - D. By deploying a capacitance hat +- [[G9D09]] (A) +What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna? + - A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands + - B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands + - C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies + - D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies +- [[G9D10]] (B) +In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern? + - A. In the plane of the loop + - B. Broadside to the loop + - C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop + - D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional +- [[G9D11]] (D) +Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas? + - A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies + - B. They must be used with an antenna tuner + - C. They must be fed with open wire line + - D. They have poor harmonic rejection +- [[G9D12]] (A) +What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support? + - A. Inverted V + - B. Inverted L + - C. Sloper + - D. Lazy H +- [[G9D13]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + + +SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] + diff --git a/logseq/config.edn b/logseq/config.edn new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5ef6e65 --- /dev/null +++ b/logseq/config.edn @@ -0,0 +1,421 @@ +{:meta/version 1 + + ;; Set the preferred format. + ;; Available options: + ;; - Markdown (default) + ;; - Org + ;; :preferred-format "Markdown" + + ;; Set the preferred workflow style. + ;; Available options: + ;; - :now for NOW/LATER style (default) + ;; - :todo for TODO/DOING style + :preferred-workflow :now + + ;; Exclude directories/files. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :hidden ["/archived" "/test.md" "../assets/archived"] + :hidden [] + + ;; Define the default journal page template. + ;; Enter the template name between the quotes. + :default-templates + {:journals ""} + + ;; Set a custom date format for the journal page title. + ;; Default value: "MMM do, yyyy" + ;; e.g., "Jan 19th, 2038" + ;; Example usage e.g., "Tue 19th, Jan 2038" + ;; :journal/page-title-format "EEE do, MMM yyyy" + + ;; Specify the journal filename format using a valid date format string. + ;; !Warning: + ;; This configuration is not retroactive and affects only new journals. + ;; To show old journal files in the app, manually rename the files in the + ;; journal directory to match the new format. + ;; Default value: "yyyy_MM_dd" + ;; :journal/file-name-format "yyyy_MM_dd" + + ;; Enable tooltip preview on hover. + ;; Default value: true + :ui/enable-tooltip? true + + ;; Display brackets [[]] around page references. + ;; Default value: true + ;; :ui/show-brackets? true + + ;; Display all lines of a block when referencing ((block)). + ;; Default value: false + :ui/show-full-blocks? false + + ;; Automatically expand block references when zooming in. + ;; Default value: true + :ui/auto-expand-block-refs? true + + ;; Enable Block timestamps. + ;; Default value: false + :feature/enable-block-timestamps? false + + ;; Disable accent marks when searching. + ;; After changing this setting, rebuild the search index by pressing (^C ^S). + ;; Default value: true + :feature/enable-search-remove-accents? true + + ;; Enable journals. + ;; Default value: true + ;; :feature/enable-journals? true + + ;; Enable flashcards. + ;; Default value: true + ;; :feature/enable-flashcards? true + + ;; Enable whiteboards. + ;; Default value: true + ;; :feature/enable-whiteboards? true + + ;; Disable the journal's built-in 'Scheduled tasks and deadlines' query. + ;; Default value: false + ;; :feature/disable-scheduled-and-deadline-query? false + + ;; Specify the number of days displayed in the future for + ;; the 'scheduled tasks and deadlines' query. + ;; Example usage: + ;; Display all scheduled and deadline blocks for the next 14 days: + ;; :scheduled/future-days 14 + ;; Default value: 7 + ;; :scheduled/future-days 7 + + ;; Specify the first day of the week. + ;; Available options: + ;; - integer from 0 to 6 (Monday to Sunday) + ;; Default value: 6 (Sunday) + :start-of-week 6 + + ;; Specify a custom CSS import. + ;; This option takes precedence over the local `logseq/custom.css` file. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :custom-css-url "@import url('https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/gh/dracula/logseq@master/custom.css');" + + ;; Specify a custom JS import. + ;; This option takes precedence over the local `logseq/custom.js` file. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :custom-js-url "https://cdn.logseq.com/custom.js" + + ;; Set a custom Arweave gateway + ;; Default gateway: https://arweave.net + ;; :arweave/gateway "https://arweave.net" + + ;; Set bullet indentation when exporting + ;; Available options: + ;; - `:eight-spaces` as eight spaces + ;; - `:four-spaces` as four spaces + ;; - `:two-spaces` as two spaces + ;; - `:tab` as a tab character (default) + ;; :export/bullet-indentation :tab + + ;; Publish all pages within the Graph + ;; Regardless of whether individual pages have been marked as public. + ;; Default value: false + ;; :publishing/all-pages-public? false + + ;; Define the default home page and sidebar status. + ;; If unspecified, the journal page will be loaded on startup and the right sidebar will stay hidden. + ;; The `:page` value represents the name of the page displayed at startup. + ;; Available options for `:sidebar` are: + ;; - "Contents" to display the Contents page in the right sidebar. + ;; - A specific page name to display in the right sidebar. + ;; - An array of multiple pages, e.g., ["Contents" "Page A" "Page B"]. + ;; If `:sidebar` remains unset, the right sidebar will stay hidden. + ;; Examples: + ;; 1. Set "Changelog" as the home page and display "Contents" in the right sidebar: + ;; :default-home {:page "Changelog", :sidebar "Contents"} + ;; 2. Set "Jun 3rd, 2021" as the home page without the right sidebar: + ;; :default-home {:page "Jun 3rd, 2021"} + ;; 3. Set "home" as the home page and display multiple pages in the right sidebar: + ;; :default-home {:page "home", :sidebar ["Page A" "Page B"]} + + ;; Set the default location for storing notes. + ;; Default value: "pages" + ;; :pages-directory "pages" + + ;; Set the default location for storing journals. + ;; Default value: "journals" + ;; :journals-directory "journals" + + ;; Set the default location for storing whiteboards. + ;; Default value: "whiteboards" + ;; :whiteboards-directory "whiteboards" + + ;; Enabling this option converts + ;; [[Grant Ideas]] to [[file:./grant_ideas.org][Grant Ideas]] for org-mode. + ;; For more information, visit https://github.com/logseq/logseq/issues/672 + ;; :org-mode/insert-file-link? false + + ;; Configure custom shortcuts. + ;; Syntax: + ;; 1. + indicates simultaneous key presses, e.g., `Ctrl+Shift+a`. + ;; 2. A space between keys represents key chords, e.g., `t s` means + ;; pressing `t` followed by `s`. + ;; 3. mod refers to `Ctrl` for Windows/Linux and `Command` for Mac. + ;; 4. Use false to disable a specific shortcut. + ;; 5. You can define multiple bindings for a single action, e.g., ["ctrl+j" "down"]. + ;; The full list of configurable shortcuts is available at: + ;; https://github.com/logseq/logseq/blob/master/src/main/frontend/modules/shortcut/config.cljs + ;; Example: + ;; :shortcuts + ;; {:editor/new-block "enter" + ;; :editor/new-line "shift+enter" + ;; :editor/insert-link "mod+shift+k" + ;; :editor/highlight false + ;; :ui/toggle-settings "t s" + ;; :editor/up ["ctrl+k" "up"] + ;; :editor/down ["ctrl+j" "down"] + ;; :editor/left ["ctrl+h" "left"] + ;; :editor/right ["ctrl+l" "right"]} + :shortcuts {} + + ;; Configure the behavior of pressing Enter in document mode. + ;; if set to true, pressing Enter will create a new block. + ;; Default value: false + :shortcut/doc-mode-enter-for-new-block? false + + ;; Block content larger than `block/content-max-length` will not be searchable + ;; or editable for performance. + ;; Default value: 10000 + :block/content-max-length 10000 + + ;; Display command documentation on hover. + ;; Default value: true + :ui/show-command-doc? true + + ;; Display empty bullet points. + ;; Default value: false + :ui/show-empty-bullets? false + + ;; Pre-defined :view function to use with advanced queries. + :query/views + {:pprint + (fn [r] [:pre.code (pprint r)])} + + ;; Advanced queries `:result-transform` function. + ;; Transform the query result before displaying it. + :query/result-transforms + {:sort-by-priority + (fn [result] (sort-by (fn [h] (get h :block/priority "Z")) result))} + + ;; The following queries will be displayed at the bottom of today's journal page. + ;; The "NOW" query returns tasks with "NOW" or "DOING" status. + ;; The "NEXT" query returns tasks with "NOW", "LATER", or "TODO" status. + :default-queries + {:journals + [{:title "🔨 NOW" + :query [:find (pull ?h [*]) + :in $ ?start ?today + :where + [?h :block/marker ?marker] + [(contains? #{"NOW" "DOING"} ?marker)] + [?h :block/page ?p] + [?p :block/journal? true] + [?p :block/journal-day ?d] + [(>= ?d ?start)] + [(<= ?d ?today)]] + :inputs [:14d :today] + :result-transform (fn [result] + (sort-by (fn [h] + (get h :block/priority "Z")) result)) + :group-by-page? false + :collapsed? false} + {:title "📅 NEXT" + :query [:find (pull ?h [*]) + :in $ ?start ?next + :where + [?h :block/marker ?marker] + [(contains? #{"NOW" "LATER" "TODO"} ?marker)] + [?h :block/page ?p] + [?p :block/journal? true] + [?p :block/journal-day ?d] + [(> ?d ?start)] + [(< ?d ?next)]] + :inputs [:today :7d-after] + :group-by-page? false + :collapsed? false}]} + + ;; Add custom commands to the command palette + ;; Example usage: + ;; :commands + ;; [ + ;; ["js" "Javascript"] + ;; ["md" "Markdown"] + ;; ] + :commands [] + + ;; Enable collapsing blocks with titles but no children. + ;; By default, only blocks with children can be collapsed. + ;; Setting `:outliner/block-title-collapse-enabled?` to true allows collapsing + ;; blocks with titles (multiple lines) and content. For example: + ;; - block title + ;; block content + ;; Default value: false + :outliner/block-title-collapse-enabled? false + + ;; Macros replace texts and will make you more productive. + ;; Example usage: + ;; Change the :macros value below to: + ;; {"poem" "Rose is $1, violet's $2. Life's ordered: Org assists you."} + ;; input "{{poem red,blue}}" + ;; becomes + ;; Rose is red, violet's blue. Life's ordered: Org assists you. + :macros {} + + ;; Configure the default expansion level for linked references. + ;; For example, consider the following block hierarchy: + ;; - a [[page]] (level 1) + ;; - b (level 2) + ;; - c (level 3) + ;; - d (level 4) + ;; + ;; With the default value of level 2, block b will be collapsed. + ;; If the level's value is set to 3, block c will be collapsed. + ;; Default value: 2 + :ref/default-open-blocks-level 2 + + ;; Configure the threshold for linked references before collapsing. + ;; Default value: 100 + :ref/linked-references-collapsed-threshold 50 + + ;; Graph view configuration. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :graph/settings + ;; {:orphan-pages? true ; Default value: true + ;; :builtin-pages? false ; Default value: false + ;; :excluded-pages? false ; Default value: false + ;; :journal? false} ; Default value: false + + ;; Graph view configuration. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :graph/forcesettings + ;; {:link-dist 180 ; Default value: 180 + ;; :charge-strength -600 ; Default value: -600 + ;; :charge-range 600} ; Default value: 600 + + ;; Favorites to list on the left sidebar + :favorites [] + + ;; Set flashcards interval. + ;; Expected value: + ;; - Float between 0 and 1 + ;; higher values result in faster changes to the next review interval. + ;; Default value: 0.5 + ;; :srs/learning-fraction 0.5 + + ;; Set the initial interval after the first successful review of a card. + ;; Default value: 4 + ;; :srs/initial-interval 4 + + ;; Hide specific block properties. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :block-hidden-properties #{:public :icon} + + ;; Create a page for all properties. + ;; Default value: true + :property-pages/enabled? true + + ;; Properties to exclude from having property pages + ;; Example usage: + ;; :property-pages/excludelist #{:duration :author} + + ;; By default, property value separated by commas will not be treated as + ;; page references. You can add properties to enable it. + ;; Example usage: + ;; :property/separated-by-commas #{:alias :tags} + + ;; Properties that are ignored when parsing property values for references + ;; Example usage: + ;; :ignored-page-references-keywords #{:author :website} + + ;; logbook configuration. + ;; :logbook/settings + ;; {:with-second-support? false ;limit logbook to minutes, seconds will be eliminated + ;; :enabled-in-all-blocks true ;display logbook in all blocks after timetracking + ;; :enabled-in-timestamped-blocks false ;don't display logbook at all + ;; } + + ;; Mobile photo upload configuration. + ;; :mobile/photo + ;; {:allow-editing? true + ;; :quality 80} + + ;; Mobile features options + ;; Gestures + ;; Example usage: + ;; :mobile + ;; {:gestures/disabled-in-block-with-tags ["kanban"]} + + ;; Extra CodeMirror options + ;; See https://codemirror.net/5/doc/manual.html#config for possible options + ;; Example usage: + ;; :editor/extra-codemirror-options + ;; {:lineWrapping false ; Default value: false + ;; :lineNumbers true ; Default value: true + ;; :readOnly false} ; Default value: false + + ;; Enable logical outdenting + ;; Default value: false + ;; :editor/logical-outdenting? false + + ;; Prefer pasting the file when text and a file are in the clipboard. + ;; Default value: false + ;; :editor/preferred-pasting-file? false + + ;; Quick capture templates for receiving content from other apps. + ;; Each template contains three elements {time}, {text} and {url}, which can be auto-expanded + ;; by receiving content from other apps. Note: the {} cannot be omitted. + ;; - {time}: capture time + ;; - {date}: capture date using current date format, use `[[{date}]]` to get a page reference + ;; - {text}: text that users selected before sharing. + ;; - {url}: URL or assets path for media files stored in Logseq. + ;; You can also reorder them or use only one or two of them in the template. + ;; You can also insert or format any text in the template, as shown in the following examples. + ;; :quick-capture-templates + ;; {:text "[[quick capture]] **{time}**: {text} from {url}" + ;; :media "[[quick capture]] **{time}**: {url}"} + + ;; Quick capture options. + ;; - insert-today? Insert the capture at the end of today's journal page (boolean). + ;; - redirect-page? Redirect to the quick capture page after capturing (boolean). + ;; - default-page The default page to capture to if insert-today? is false (string). + ;; :quick-capture-options + ;; {:insert-today? false ;; Default value: true + ;; :redirect-page? false ;; Default value: false + ;; :default-page "quick capture"} ;; Default page: "quick capture" + + ;; File sync options + ;; Ignore these files when syncing, regexp is supported. + ;; :file-sync/ignore-files [] + + ;; Configure the Enter key behavior for + ;; context-aware editing with DWIM (Do What I Mean). + ;; context-aware Enter key behavior implies that pressing Enter will + ;; have different outcomes based on the context. + ;; For instance, pressing Enter within a list generates a new list item, + ;; whereas pressing Enter in a block reference opens the referenced block. + ;; :dwim/settings + ;; {:admonition&src? true ;; Default value: true + ;; :markup? false ;; Default value: false + ;; :block-ref? true ;; Default value: true + ;; :page-ref? true ;; Default value: true + ;; :properties? true ;; Default value: true + ;; :list? false} ;; Default value: false + + ;; Configure the escaping method for special characters in page titles. + ;; Warning: + ;; This is a dangerous operation. To modify the setting, + ;; access the 'Filename format' setting and follow the instructions. + ;; Otherwise, You may need to manually rename all affected files and + ;; re-index them on all clients after synchronization. + ;; Incorrect handling may result in messy page titles. + ;; Available options: + ;; - :triple-lowbar (default) + ;; ;use triple underscore `___` for slash `/` in page title + ;; ;use Percent-encoding for other invalid characters + :file/name-format :triple-lowbar} diff --git a/logseq/custom.css b/logseq/custom.css new file mode 100644 index 0000000..e69de29 diff --git a/pages/About.md b/pages/About.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..967543f --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/About.md @@ -0,0 +1,17 @@ +- This document was created using the 2023-2027 General Class Question Pool 2nd Errata + Issued April 15, 2023, downloaded from https://www.arrl.org/general-question-pool + - This is provided for the use of Hams who use (or would like to use!) Logseq for personal knowledge management, by AF0CX. + - conversion to Logseq markdown format was hobbled together with judicious use of `sed`and `grep` +- Refer to the [[General Syllabus]] , which has links to Subelements, Sections and Questions. + - Example 1: [[SUBELEMENT G1]] for a subelement + - Example 2: [[G1A]] for a section in that subelement + - Example 3: [[G1A01]] for a question in that section +- It is up to the person studying to embellish and take notes based on the links. + - for example, if you are studying and see something related to question [[G1A01]], you can simply link it or use a hashtag. + - You can further expand your knowledge by putting double brackets around terms or concepts that you want to define, such as [[MHz]] or [[Capacitance]]. + - Hint: highlight words you want to study and then go to the linked page, and expand "unlinked references" to find questions that relate to that topic. + - As you progress, you will have a graph of meaningful links and relations that should provide you a strong basis for expanding your knowledge beyond "just passing" and understanding the material at a deeper level. +- Questions retain the correct answer (A-D) in the header, as well as any references to other documents. + - When running through flash cards, try to remember what the correct answer is *before* revealing the answer. +- Disclaimers + - This document is provided as-is and without any kind of warranty. I have attempted to make sure that it is error-free, but mistakes can happen. Use at your own risk. \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/pages/G0A.md b/pages/G0A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..07c1833 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G0A.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G0A – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation + +- [[G0A01]] (A) +What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue? #card + - A. It heats body tissue + - B. It causes radiation poisoning + - C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level + - D. It cools body tissue +- [[G0A02]] (D) +Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal? #card + - A. Its duty cycle + - B. Its frequency + - C. Its power density + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A03]] (D) [97.13(c)(1)] +How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations? #card + - A. By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. By calculation based on computer modeling + - C. By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A04]] (D) +What does “time averaging” mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure? #card + - A. The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period + - B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body + - C. The total time of the exposure + - D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period +- [[G0A05]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(b)] +What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption? #card + - A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields + - B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC + - C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A06]] (A) [97.13(c)(2), 1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)] +What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria? #card + - A. Perform an RF Exposure Evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65 + - B. Contact the FCC for permission to transmit + - C. Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines + - D. Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter +- [[G0A07]] (A) +What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure? #card + - A. A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - B. A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted + - C. Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements + - D. High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements +- [[G0A08]] (C) [97.13(c)(2)] +Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations? #card + - A. Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station + - B. Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels + - C. Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A09]] (B) +What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength? #card + - A. A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction + - B. A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna + - C. An SWR meter with a peak-reading function + - D. An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator +- [[G0A10]] (C) +What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna? #card + - A. Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain + - B. Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio + - C. Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0A11]] (C) +What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna? #card + - A. Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation + - B. Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation + - C. Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas + - D. Make sure the antenna is properly shielded +- [[G0A12]] (D) [1.1307(1)(b)(3)(i)(A)] +What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure? #card + - A. All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt + - B. Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground + - C. Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP + - D. All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt diff --git a/pages/G0B.md b/pages/G0B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3053d1b --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G0B.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G0B – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety + +- [[G0B01]] (A) +Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers? #card + - A. Only the hot wires + - B. Only the neutral wire + - C. Only the ground wire + - D. All wires +- [[G0B02]] (C) +According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker? #card + - A. AWG number 20 + - B. AWG number 16 + - C. AWG number 12 + - D. AWG number 8 +- [[G0B03]] (D) +Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring? #card + - A. 30 amperes + - B. 25 amperes + - C. 20 amperes + - D. 15 amperes +- [[G0B04]] (B) +Where should the station’s lightning protection ground system be located? #card + - A. As close to the station equipment as possible + - B. Outside the building + - C. Next to the closest power pole + - D. Parallel to the water supply line +- [[G0B05]] (B) +Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power? #card + - A. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire + - B. Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground + - C. Overvoltage on the hot wires + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0B06]] (C) +Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code? #card + - A. Acceptable bandwidth limits + - B. Acceptable modulation limits + - C. Electrical safety of the station + - D. RF exposure limits of the human body +- [[G0B07]] (B) +Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness? #card + - A. Always hold on to the tower with one hand + - B. Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life + - C. Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0B08]] (B) +What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices? #card + - A. Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower + - B. Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged + - C. Unground the base of the tower + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0B09]] (A) +Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation? #card + - A. The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area + - B. The generator must be insulated from ground + - C. Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G0B10]] (A) +Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder? #card + - A. Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder + - B. High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly + - C. Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit + - D. RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas +- [[G0B11]] (D) +Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods? #card + - A. They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines + - B. Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle + - C. Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring + - D. They must be bonded together with all other grounds +- [[G0B12]] (C) +What is the purpose of a power supply interlock? #card + - A. To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer’s warranty + - B. To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot + - C. To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened + - D. To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced +- [[G0B13]] (A) +Where should lightning arrestors be located? #card + - A. Where the feed lines enter the building + - B. On the antenna, opposite the feed point + - C. In series with each ground lead + - D. At the closest power pole ground electrode diff --git a/pages/G1A.md b/pages/G1A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5e7b5d8 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G1A.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G1A – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations + +- [[G1A01]] (C) [97.301(d)] +On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit? #card + - A. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters + - B. 160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters + - C. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters + - D. 80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters +- [[G1A02]] (B) [97.305] +On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? #card + - A. 160 meters + - B. 30 meters + - C. 17 meters + - D. 12 meters +- [[G1A03]] (B) [97.305] +On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? #card + - A. 160 meters + - B. 30 meters + - C. 20 meters + - D. 12 meters +- [[G1A04]] (D) [97.303(h)] +Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? #card + - A. 11 meters + - B. 12 meters + - C. 30 meters + - D. 60 meters +- [[G1A05]] (A) [97.301(d)] +On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator? #card + - A. 7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz + - B. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz + - C. 21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz + - D. All of the above +- [[G1A06]] (C) [97.303] +Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band? #card + - A. Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station + - B. Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies + - C. Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users + - D. Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band +- [[G1A07]] (D) [97.305(a)] +On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions? #card + - A. 28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only + - B. 28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only + - C. 28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only + - D. The entire band +- [[G1A08]] (B) [97.301(b)] +Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees? #card + - A. All HF bands + - B. 80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters + - C. All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters + - D. 60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters +- [[G1A09]] (C) [97.301(d)] +Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band? #card + - A. 14250 kHz + - B. 18155 kHz + - C. 21300 kHz + - D. 24900 kHz +- [[G1A10]] (D) [97.205(b)] +What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use? #card + - A. The entire band + - B. The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz + - C. The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz + - D. The portion above 29.5 MHz +- [[G1A11]] (B) [97.301] +When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them? #card + - A. The lower frequency portion + - B. The upper frequency portion + - C. The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz + - D. The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz diff --git a/pages/G1B.md b/pages/G1B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..66aae22 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G1B.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G1B – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals + +- [[G1B01]] (C) [97.15(a)] +What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC? #card + - A. 50 feet + - B. 100 feet + - C. 200 feet + - D. 250 feet +- [[G1B02]] (A) [97.203(b)] +With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? #card + - A. No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location + - B. The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization + - C. The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B03]] (A) [97.3(a)(9)] +Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules? #card + - A. Observation of propagation and reception + - B. Automatic identification of repeaters + - C. Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B04]] (C) [97.113(c)] +Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations? #card + - A. Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only + - B. Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station + - C. Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations + - D. Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act +- [[G1B05]] (B) [97.111((5)(b)] +Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted? #card + - A. Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration + - B. Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code + - C. Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1B06]] (D) [97.15(b), PRB-1, 101 FCC 2d 952 (1985)] +Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures? #card + - A. Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority + - B. At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC + - C. Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure + - D. Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity +- [[G1B07]] (B) [97.113(a)(4)] +What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? #card + - A. Only “Q” signals are permitted + - B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message + - C. They are not permitted + - D. They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules +- [[G1B08]] (B) [97.111(a)(1)] +When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission? #card + - A. Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC + - B. When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications + - C. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country + - D. Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country +- [[G1B09]] (D) [97.203(d)] +On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted? #card + - A. On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt + - B. On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code + - C. 21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz + - D. 28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz +- [[G1B10]] (C) [97.203(c)] +What is the power limit for beacon stations? #card + - A. 10 watts PEP output + - B. 20 watts PEP output + - C. 100 watts PEP output + - D. 200 watts PEP output +- [[G1B11]] (A) [97.101(a)] +Who or what determines “good engineering and good amateur practice,” as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? #card + - A. The FCC + - B. The control operator + - C. The IEEE + - D. The ITU diff --git a/pages/G1C.md b/pages/G1C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..7f77550 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G1C.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G1C – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements + +- [[G1C01]] (A) [97.313(c)(1)] +What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? #card + - A. 200 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. 2000 watts PEP output +- [[G1C02]] (C) [97.313] +What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band? #card + - A. 50 watts PEP output + - B. 200 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole +- [[G1C03]] (A) [97.303(h)(1)] +What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band? #card + - A. 2.8 kHz + - B. 5.6 kHz + - C. 1.8 kHz + - D. 3 kHz +- [[G1C04]] (A) [97.303(i)] +Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band? #card + - A. If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna + - B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked + - C. You must keep a record of all third-party traffic + - D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used +- [[G1C05]] (C) [97.313] +What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator? #card + - A. 100 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1500 watts PEP output + - D. 2000 watts PEP output +- [[G1C06]] (D) [97.313] +What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band? #card + - A. 200 watts PEP output + - B. 1000 watts PEP output + - C. 1200 watts PEP output + - D. 1500 watts PEP output +- [[G1C07]] (C) [97.309(a)(4)] +What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air? + - A. Type-certify equipment to FCC standards + - B. Obtain an experimental license from the FCC + - C. Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol + - D. Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique +- [[G1C08]] (D) [97.307(f)(3)] +What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? #card + - A. 56 kilobaud + - B. 19.6 kilobaud + - C. 1200 baud + - D. 300 baud +- [[G1C09]] (C) [97.313(i)] +What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band? #card + - A. 1500 watts PEP + - B. 10 watts RMS + - C. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole + - D. ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna +- [[G1C10]] (C) [97.305(c) and 97.307(f)(4)] +What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band? #card + - A. 56 kilobaud + - B. 19.6 kilobaud + - C. 1200 baud + - D. 300 baud +- [[G1C11]] (D) [97.313] +What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power? #card + - A. RMS output from the transmitter + - B. RMS input to the antenna + - C. PEP input to the antenna + - D. PEP output from the transmitter diff --git a/pages/G1D.md b/pages/G1D.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c5ad676 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G1D.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G1D – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation + +- [[G1D01]] (A) [97.501, 97.505(a)] +Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license? #card + - A. Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC + - B. Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago + - C. Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC + - D. Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license +- [[G1D02]] (C) [97.509(b)(3)(i)] +What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license? #card + - A. General and Technician + - B. None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited + - C. Technician only + - D. Amateur Extra, General, and Technician +- [[G1D03]] (C) [97.9(b)] +On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges? #card + - A. Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database + - B. Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment + - C. On any General or Technician class band segment + - D. On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters +- [[G1D04]] (A) [97.509(3)(i)(c)] +Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination? #card + - A. At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - B. At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher + - C. At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher + - D. At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class +- [[G1D05]] (A) [97.7] +When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator? #card + - A. A US operator/primary station license + - B. Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC + - C. Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US + - D. A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC +- [[G1D06]] (A) [97.119(f)(2)] +Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with “AG” after their call sign? #card + - A. Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges + - B. Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency + - C. Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges + - D. A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC +- [[G1D07]] (C) [97.509(b)(1)] +Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? #card + - A. The Federal Communications Commission + - B. The Universal Licensing System + - C. A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator + - D. The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau +- [[G1D08]] (B) [97.509(b)(3)] +Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? #card + - A. The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years + - B. The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above + - C. The person’s home citizenship must be in ITU region 2 + - D. None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner +- [[G1D09]] (C) [97.9(b)] +How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit? #card + - A. 30 days + - B. 180 days + - C. 365 days + - D. For as long as your current license is valid +- [[G1D10]] (B) [97.509(b)(2)] +What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? #card + - A. 16 years + - B. 18 years + - C. 21 years + - D. There is no age limit +- [[G1D11]] (D) [97.505] +What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed? #card + - A. They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license + - B. There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license + - C. Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated + - D. The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam +- [[G1D12]] (C) [97.507] +When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply? #card + - A. Those of both the remote station’s country and the FCC + - B. Those of the remote station’s country and the FCC’s third-party regulations + - C. Only those of the remote station’s country + - D. Only those of the FCC diff --git a/pages/G1E.md b/pages/G1E.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8f7b41c --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G1E.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G1E – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station + +- [[G1E01]] (A) [97.115(b)(2)] +Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station? #card + - A. The third party’s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated + - B. The third party is not a US citizen + - C. The third party is speaking in a language other than English + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1E02]] (D) [97.205(b)] +When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator? #card + - A. Under no circumstances + - B. Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission + - C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency + - D. Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license +- [[G1E03]] (A) [97.221] +What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments? #card + - A. The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control + - B. The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station + - C. No third-party traffic may be transmitted + - D. The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license +- [[G1E04]] (D) [97.13(b), 97.303, 97.311(b)] +Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? #card + - A. When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station + - B. When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary + - C. When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G1E05]] (C) [97.115(a)(2), 97.117] +What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement? #card + - A. They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief + - B. They must be for other licensed amateurs + - C. They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief + - D. The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log +- [[G1E06]] (C) [97.301, ITU Radio Regulations] +The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America? #card + - A. Region 4 + - B. Region 3 + - C. Region 2 + - D. Region 1 +- [[G1E07]] (D) [97.111] +In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations? #card + - A. Anywhere in the band + - B. Channels 1 through 4 + - C. Channels 42 through 45 + - D. No part +- [[G1E08]] (B) [97.313(j)] +What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions? #card + - A. 100 milliwatts + - B. 10 watts + - C. 100 watts + - D. 1500 watts +- [[G1E09]] (A) [97.115] +Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication? #card + - A. Under no circumstances + - B. When messages are encrypted + - C. When messages are not encrypted + - D. When under automatic control +- [[G1E10]] (A) [97.101] +Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz? #card + - A. A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies + - B. A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies  + - C. These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations + - D. These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC +- [[G1E11]] (D) [97.221, 97.305] +On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations? #card + - A. On any band segment where digital operation is permitted + - B. Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands + - C. Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands + - D. Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands +- [[G1E12]] (A) [97.115] +When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control? #card + - A. Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules + - B. Under no circumstances except for emergencies + - C. Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs + - D. Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC diff --git a/pages/G2A.md b/pages/G2A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8cf5b2e --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G2A.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G2A – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations + +- [[G2A01]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? #card + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A02]] (B) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? #card + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A03]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? #card + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A04]] (A) +Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands? #card + - A. Upper sideband + - B. Lower sideband + - C. Suppressed sideband + - D. Double sideband +- [[G2A05]] (C) +Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? #card + - A. Frequency modulation + - B. Double sideband + - C. Single sideband + - D. Single phase modulation +- [[G2A06]] (D) +Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? #card + - A. Very high-fidelity voice modulation + - B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes + - C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise + - D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency +- [[G2A07]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)? #card + - A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed + - B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed + - C. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands + - D. SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands +- [[G2A08]] (B) +What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact? #card + - A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign + - B. Say your call sign once + - C. Say “Breaker Breaker” + - D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station +- [[G2A09]] (D) +Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands? #card + - A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies + - B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands + - C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector + - D. It is commonly accepted amateur practice +- [[G2A10]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation? #card + - A. The received signal is more natural sounding + - B. It allows “hands free” operation + - C. It occupies less bandwidth + - D. It provides more power output +- [[G2A11]] (C) +Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling “CQ DX”? #card + - A. Any caller is welcome to respond + - B. Only stations in Germany + - C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states + - D. Only contest stations +- [[G2A12]] (B) +What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver? #card + - A. RF clipping level + - B. Transmit audio or microphone gain + - C. Antenna inductance or capacitance + - D. Attenuator level diff --git a/pages/G2B.md b/pages/G2B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..d4623f8 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G2B.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G2B – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation + +- [[G2B01]] (C) [97.101(b), (c)] +Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies? #card + - A. Nets have priority + - B. QSOs in progress have priority + - C. Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency + - D. Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies +- [[G2B02]] (B) +What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? #card + - A. Inform your local emergency coordinator + - B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed + - C. Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress + - D. Immediately cease all transmissions +- [[G2B03]] (C) +What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency? #card + - A. Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority + - B. Decrease power and continue to transmit + - C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner + - D. Switch to the opposite sideband +- [[G2B04]] (B) +When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? #card + - A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz + - B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz + - C. 1 kHz to 3 kHz + - D. 3 kHz to 6 kHz +- [[G2B05]] (C) +When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? #card + - A. 5 Hz to 50 Hz + - B. 150 Hz to 500 Hz + - C. 2 kHz to 3 kHz + - D. Approximately 6 kHz +- [[G2B06]] (A) +How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone? #card + - A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign + - B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ + - C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response + - D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response +- [[G2B07]] (C) +Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call? #card + - A. Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear + - B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times + - C. Follow the voluntary band plan + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2B08]] (A) +What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment? #card + - A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states + - B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states + - C. Only digital contacts + - D. Only SSTV contacts +- [[G2B09]] (A) [97.407(a)] +Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster? #card + - A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license + - B. Only a RACES net control operator + - C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official + - D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational +- [[G2B10]] (B) +Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management? #card + - A. Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in + - B. Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions + - C. Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2B11]] (C) [97.407(d)(4)] +How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization? #card + - A. No more than 1 hour per month + - B. No more than 2 hours per month + - C. No more than 1 hour per week + - D. No more than 2 hours per week diff --git a/pages/G2C.md b/pages/G2C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a61ad7e --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G2C.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G2C – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in + +- [[G2C01]] (D) +Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)? #card + - A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK” + - B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code + - C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission + - D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements +- [[G2C02]] (A) +What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?” + - A. Send slower + - B. Change frequency + - C. Increase your power + - D. Repeat everything twice +- [[G2C03]] (C) +What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission? #card + - A. No US stations should call + - B. Operating full break-in + - C. Listening only for a specific station or stations + - D. Closing station now +- [[G2C04]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean? #card + - A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?” + - B. “Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?” + - C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?” + - D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?” +- [[G2C05]] (B) +What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code? #card + - A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ + - B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ + - C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm + - D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm +- [[G2C06]] (D) +What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation? #card + - A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station + - B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency + - C. Sending without error + - D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal +- [[G2C07]] (A) +When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report? #card + - A. Chirpy or unstable signal + - B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated + - C. 100 percent copy + - D. Key clicks +- [[G2C08]] (C) +What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW? #card + - A. SK + - B. BK + - C. AR + - D. KN +- [[G2C09]] (C) +What does the Q signal “QSL” mean? #card + - A. Send slower + - B. We have already confirmed the contact + - C. I have received and understood + - D. We have worked before +- [[G2C10]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRN” mean? #card + - A. Send more slowly + - B. Stop sending + - C. Zero beat my signal + - D. I am troubled by static +- [[G2C11]] (D) +What does the Q signal “QRV” mean? #card + - A. You are sending too fast + - B. There is interference on the frequency + - C. I am quitting for the day + - D. I am ready to receive diff --git a/pages/G2D.md b/pages/G2D.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6b59896 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G2D.md @@ -0,0 +1,65 @@ +G2D – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations + +- [[G2D01]] (A) +What is the Volunteer Monitor Program? #card + - A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations + - B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations + - C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters + - D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency +- [[G2D02]] (D) +Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program? #card + - A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations + - B. To provide emergency and public safety communications + - C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage + - D. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules +- [[G2D03]] (B) +What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area? #card + - A. Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency + - B. Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors + - C. Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2D04]] (B) +Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? #card + - A. A map that shows accurate land masses + - B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location + - C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator + - D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit +- [[G2D05]] (C) +Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station? #card + - C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary +- [[G2D06]] (C) +How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station? #card + - A. Toward the rising sun + - B. Along the gray line + - C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading + - D. Toward the north +- [[G2D07]] (D) +Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet? #card + - A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog + - B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David + - C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark + - D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta +- [[G2D08]] (D) +Why do many amateurs keep a station log? #card + - A. The FCC requires a log of all international contacts + - B. The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic + - C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest + - D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station +- [[G2D09]] (C) +Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies? #card + - A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor + - B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World + - C. Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2D10]] (B) +What is QRP operation? #card + - A. Remote piloted model control + - B. Low-power transmit operation + - C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol + - D. Traffic relay procedure net operation +- [[G2D11]] (A) +Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact? #card + - A. To allow each station to operate according to conditions + - B. To be sure the contact will count for award programs + - C. To follow standard radiogram structure + - D. To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display diff --git a/pages/G2E.md b/pages/G2E.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a62e084 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G2E.md @@ -0,0 +1,92 @@ +G2E – Digital mode operating procedures + +- [[G2E01]] (D) +Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter? #card + - A. USB + - B. DSB + - C. CW + - D. LSB +- [[G2E02]] (B) +What is VARA? #card + - A. A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce) + - B. A digital protocol used with Winlink + - C. A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF + - D.A DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios +- [[G2E03]] (D) +What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission? #card + - A. Frequent retries or timeouts + - B. Long pauses in message transmission + - C. Failure to establish a connection between stations + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2E04]] (D) +Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8? #card + - A. Always call on the station’s frequency + - B. Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station’s frequency + - C. Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station + - D. Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station +- [[G2E05]] (B) +What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK? #card + - A. LSB + - B. USB + - C. DSB + - D. SSB +- [[G2E06]] (B) +What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? #card + - A. 85 Hz + - B. 170 Hz + - C. 425 Hz + - D. 850 Hz +- [[G2E07]] (B) +Which of the following is required when using FT8? #card + - A. A special hardware modem + - B. Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second + - C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB + - D. A vertically polarized antenna +- [[G2E08]] (D) +In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found? #card + - A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz + - B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz + - C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz + - D. Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz +- [[G2E09]] (C) +How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol? #card + - A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode + - B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects + - C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations + - D. Send a NAK code +- [[G2E10]] (D) +Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station? #card + - A. Send an email to the system control operator + - B. Send QRL in Morse code + - C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID + - D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency +- [[G2E11]] (C) +What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network? #card + - A. To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas + - B. To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide + - C. To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event + - D. To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers +- [[G2E12]] (D) +Which of the following describes Winlink? #card + - A. An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet + - B. A form of Packet Radio + - C. A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation + - D. All of the above +- [[G2E13]] (B) +What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server? #card + - A. Terminal Node Controller + - B. Gateway + - C. RJ-45 + - D. Printer/Server +- [[G2E14]] (D) +What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly? #card + - A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed + - B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate + - C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G2E15]] (C) +Which of the following is a common location for FT8? #card + - A. Anywhere in the voice portion of the band + - B. Anywhere in the CW portion of the band + - C. Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz + - D. Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz diff --git a/pages/G3A.md b/pages/G3A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a4dd129 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G3A.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G3A – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices + +- [[G3A01]] (A) +How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation? #card + - A. Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies + - B. Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation + - C. A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band + - D. A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions +- [[G3A02]] (B) +What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation? #card + - A. It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies + - B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies + - C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications + - D. None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected +- [[G3A03]] (C) +Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth? #card + - A. 28 days + - B. 1 to 2 hours + - C. 8 minutes + - D. 20 to 40 hours +- [[G3A04]] (D) +Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity? #card + - A. 80 meters and 160 meters + - B. 60 meters and 40 meters + - C. 30 meters and 20 meters + - D. 15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters +- [[G3A05]] (D) +What is the solar flux index? #card + - A. A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth + - B. A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions + - C. Another name for the American sunspot number + - D. A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters +- [[G3A06]] (D) +What is a geomagnetic storm? #card + - A. A sudden drop in the solar flux index + - B. A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation + - C. Ripples in the geomagnetic force + - D. A temporary disturbance in Earth’s geomagnetic field +- [[G3A07]] (D) +At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? #card + - A. At the summer solstice + - B. Only at the maximum point + - C. Only at the minimum point + - D. At any point +- [[G3A08]] (D) +How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation? #card + - A. Improve high-latitude HF propagation + - B. Degrade ground wave propagation + - C. Improve ground wave propagation + - D. Degrade high-latitude HF propagation +- [[G3A09]] (A) +How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications? #card + - A. Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals + - B. Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions + - C. Improve HF long path propagation + - D. Reduce long delayed echoes +- [[G3A10]] (C) +What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle? #card + - A. Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere + - B. Cyclic variation in Earth’s radiation belts + - C. Rotation of the Sun’s surface layers around its axis + - D. The position of the Moon in its orbit +- [[G3A11]] (D) +How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth? #card + - A. 28 days + - B. 14 days + - C. 4 to 8 minutes + - D. 15 hours to several days +- [[G3A12]] (B) +What does the K-index measure? #card + - A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun + - B. The short-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field + - C. The short-term stability of the Sun’s magnetic field + - D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado +- [[G3A13]] (C) +What does the A-index measure? #card + - A. The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun + - B. The amount of polarization of the Sun’s electric field + - C. The long-term stability of Earth’s geomagnetic field + - D. The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado +- [[G3A14]] (B) +How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes? #card + - A. HF communication is improved + - B. HF communication is disturbed + - C. VHF/UHF ducting is improved + - D. VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed diff --git a/pages/G3B.md b/pages/G3B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..1b77cf5 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G3B.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G3B – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction + +- [[G3B01]] (D) +What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation? #card + - A. Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds + - B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB + - C. The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation + - D. A slightly delayed echo might be heard +- [[G3B02]] (D) +What factors affect the MUF? #card + - A. Path distance and location + - B. Time of day and season + - C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G3B03]] (A) +Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation? #card + - A. Just below the MUF + - B. Just above the LUF + - C. Just below the critical frequency + - D. Just above the critical frequency +- [[G3B04]] (A) +Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station? #card + - A. Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received + - B. Check the A-index + - C. Send a series of dots and listen for echoes + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G3B05]] (A) +How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF? #card + - A. They are refracted back to Earth + - B. They pass through the ionosphere + - C. They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere + - D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth +- [[G3B06]] (C) +What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF? #card + - A. They are refracted back to Earth + - B. They pass through the ionosphere + - C. They are attenuated before reaching the destination + - D. They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth +- [[G3B07]] (A) +What does LUF stand for? #card + - A. The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points + - B. Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius + - C. The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period + - D. Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes +- [[G3B08]] (B) +What does MUF stand for? #card + - A. The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points + - B. The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points + - C. The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period + - D. The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period +- [[G3B09]] (C) +What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? #card + - A. 180 miles + - B. 1,200 miles + - C. 2,500 miles + - D. 12,000 miles +- [[G3B10]] (B) +What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth’s surface normally covered in one hop using the E region? #card + - A. 180 miles + - B. 1,200 miles + - C. 2,500 miles + - D. 12,000 miles +- [[G3B11]] (A) +What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF? #card + - A. Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path + - B. HF communications over the path are enhanced + - C. Double-hop propagation along the path is more common + - D. Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced +- [[G3B12]] (D) +Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer? #card + - A. Poor propagation at any time of day + - B. World-wide propagation during daylight hours + - C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption + - D. High levels of atmospheric noise or static diff --git a/pages/G3C.md b/pages/G3C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..fd7aef7 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G3C.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G3C – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) + +- [[G3C01]] (A) +Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth? #card + - A. The D region + - B. The E region + - C. The F1 region + - D. The F2 region +- [[G3C02]] (A) +What is meant by the term “critical frequency” at a given incidence angle? #card + - A. The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - B. The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth + - C. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity + - D. The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB +- [[G3C03]] (C) +Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions? #card + - A. Because it is the densest + - B. Because of the Doppler effect + - C. Because it is the highest + - D. Because of temperature inversions +- [[G3C04]] (D) +What does the term “critical angle” mean, as applied to radio wave propagation? #card + - A. The long path azimuth of a distant station + - B. The short path azimuth of a distant station + - C. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions + - D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions +- [[G3C05]] (C) +Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day? #card + - A. The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - B. The F region is unstable during daylight hours + - C. The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours + - D. The E region is unstable during daylight hours +- [[G3C06]] (B) +What is a characteristic of HF scatter? #card + - A. Phone signals have high intelligibility + - B. Signals have a fluttering sound + - C. There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength + - D. Scatter propagation occurs only at night +- [[G3C07]] (D) +What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? #card + - A. The ionospheric region involved is unstable + - B. Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal + - C. The E region is not present + - D. Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths +- [[G3C08]] (A) +Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? #card + - A. Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone + - B. Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector + - C. Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy + - D. Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy +- [[G3C09]] (B) +What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station’s skip zone? #card + - A. Faraday rotation + - B. Scatter + - C. Chordal hop + - D. Short-path +- [[G3C10]] (B) +What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation? #card + - A. Propagation near the MUF + - B. Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles + - C. Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset + - D. Double hop propagation near the LUF +- [[G3C11]] (D) +Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours? #card + - A. The F2 region + - B. The F1 region + - C. The E region + - D. The D region diff --git a/pages/G4A.md b/pages/G4A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..09444ce --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G4A.md @@ -0,0 +1,79 @@ +G4A – Station configuration and operation + +- [[G4A01]] (B) +What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers? #card + - A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth + - B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband + - C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources + - D. To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies +- [[G4A02]] (C) +What is the benefit of using the opposite or “reverse” sideband when receiving CW? #card + - A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated + - B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband + - C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals + - D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented +- [[G4A03]] (C) +How does a noise blanker work? #card + - A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth + - B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor + - C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse + - D. By clipping noise peaks +- [[G4A04]] (B) +What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier’s TUNE control? #card + - A. A pronounced peak + - B. A pronounced dip + - C. No change will be observed + - D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation +- [[G4A05]] (C) +Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier? #card + - A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response + - B. To reduce harmonic radiation + - C. To prevent excessive drive + - D. To increase overall efficiency +- [[G4A06]] (C) +What is the purpose of an antenna tuner? #card + - A. Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna + - B. Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna + - C. Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4A07]] (A) +What happens as a receiver’s noise reduction control level is increased? #card + - A. Received signals may become distorted + - B. Received frequency may become unstable + - C. CW signals may become severely attenuated + - D. Received frequency may shift several kHz +- [[G4A08]] (D) +What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? #card + - A. Minimum SWR on the antenna + - B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current + - C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current + - D. Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current +- [[G4A09]] (C) +What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter’s keying line to an external amplifier? #card + - A. To prevent key clicks on CW + - B. To prevent transient overmodulation + - C. To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output + - D. To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level +- [[G4A10]] (B) +What is the function of an electronic keyer? #card + - A. Automatic transmit/receive switching + - B. Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation + - C. To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter + - D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation +- [[G4A11]] (B) +Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals? #card + - A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode + - B. The ALC action distorts the signal + - C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4A12]] (C) +Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver? #card + - A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once + - C. To transmit on one frequency and listen on another + - D. To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation +- [[G4A13]] (A) +What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator? #card + - A. To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals + - B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier + - C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries + - D. To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals diff --git a/pages/G4B.md b/pages/G4B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..6c6ac79 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G4B.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G4B – Tests and test equipment + +- [[G4B01]] (D) +What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? #card + - A. An ohmmeter + - B. A signal generator + - C. An ammeter + - D. An oscilloscope +- [[G4B02]] (D) +Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter? #card + - A. An oscilloscope uses less power + - B. Complex impedances can be easily measured + - C. Greater precision + - D. Complex waveforms can be measured +- [[G4B03]] (A) +Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter? #card + - A. An oscilloscope + - B. A field strength meter + - C. A sidetone monitor + - D. A wavemeter +- [[G4B04]] (D) +What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal? #card + - A. The local oscillator of the transmitter + - B. An external RF oscillator + - C. The transmitter balanced mixer output + - D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter +- [[G4B05]] (D) +Why do voltmeters have high input impedance? #card + - A. It improves the frequency response + - B. It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured + - C. It improves the resolution of the readings + - D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured +- [[G4B06]] (C) +What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter? #card + - A. Better for measuring computer circuits + - B. Less prone to overload + - C. Higher precision + - D. Faster response +- [[G4B07]] (B) +What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? #card + - A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees + - B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals + - C. Two swept frequency tones + - D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude +- [[G4B08]] (A) +What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze? #card + - A. Linearity + - B. Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB + - C. Percentage of frequency modulation + - D. Percentage of carrier phase shift +- [[G4B09]] (D) +When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter? #card + - A. When testing logic circuits + - B. When high precision is desired + - C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator + - D. When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values +- [[G4B10]] (A) +Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter? #card + - A. Standing wave ratio + - B. Antenna front-to-back ratio + - C. RF interference + - D. Radio wave propagation +- [[G4B11]] (C) +Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements? #card + - A. Receiver + - B. Transmitter + - C. Antenna and feed line + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4B12]] (B) +What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer? #card + - A. Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings + - B. Received power that interferes with SWR readings + - C. Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4B13]] (C) +Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer? #card + - A. Front-to-back ratio of an antenna + - B. Power output from a transmitter + - C. Impedance of coaxial cable + - D. Gain of a directional antenna diff --git a/pages/G4C.md b/pages/G4C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..925dfc6 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G4C.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G4C – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding + +- [[G4C01]] (B) +Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits? #card + - A. Bypass inductor + - B. Bypass capacitor + - C. Forward-biased diode + - D. Reverse-biased diode +- [[G4C02]] (C) +Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? #card + - A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas + - B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors + - C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection + - D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna +- [[G4C03]] (C) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter? #card + - A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air + - B. On-and-off humming or clicking + - C. Distorted speech + - D. Clearly audible speech +- [[G4C04]] (A) +What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter? #card + - A. On-and-off humming or clicking + - B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency + - C. A chirpy CW signal + - D. Severely distorted audio +- [[G4C05]] (D) +What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns? #card + - A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire + - B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire + - C. The ground rod is resonant + - D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency +- [[G4C06]] (C) +What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection? #card + - A. Overheating of ground straps + - B. Corrosion of the ground rod + - C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment + - D. A ground loop +- [[G4C07]] (A) +Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections? #card + - A. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike + - B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection + - C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4C08]] (A) +Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? #card + - A. Place a ferrite choke on the cable + - B. Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal + - C. Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference + - D. Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable +- [[G4C09]] (D) +How can the effects of ground loops be minimized? #card + - A. Connect all ground conductors in series + - B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire + - C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections + - D. Bond equipment enclosures together +- [[G4C10]] (A) +What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station’s audio connections? #card + - A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal + - B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high + - C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current + - D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station +- [[G4C11]] (C) +What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station? #card + - A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure + - B. Using surge suppressor power outlets + - C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together + - D. Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines +- [[G4C12]] (D) +Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded? #card + - A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit + - B. It prevents signal overload + - C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded + - D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis diff --git a/pages/G4D.md b/pages/G4D.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..5ad04df --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G4D.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G4D – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges + +- [[G4D01]] (A) +What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver? #card + - A. Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals + - B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals + - C. Prevent distortion of voice signals + - D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation +- [[G4D02]] (B) +How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal? #card + - A. It increases peak power + - B. It increases average power + - C. It reduces harmonic distortion + - D. It reduces intermodulation distortion +- [[G4D03]] (D) +What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor? #card + - A. Distorted speech + - B. Excess intermodulation products + - C. Excessive background noise + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4D04]] (C) +What does an S meter measure? #card + - A. Carrier suppression + - B. Impedance + - C. Received signal strength + - D. Transmitter power output +- [[G4D05]] (D) +How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter? #card + - A. It is 10 times less powerful + - B. It is 20 times less powerful + - C. It is 20 times more powerful + - D. It is 100 times more powerful +- [[G4D06]] (A) +How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit? #card + - A. 6 dB + - B. 12 dB + - C. 15 dB + - D. 18 dB +- [[G4D07]] (C) +How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9? #card + - A. Approximately 1.5 times + - B. Approximately 2 times + - C. Approximately 4 times + - D. Approximately 8 times +- [[G4D08]] (C) +What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz? #card + - A. 7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz + - B. 7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz + - C. 7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz + - D. 7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz +- [[G4D09]] (B) +What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? #card + - A. 14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz + - B. 14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz + - C. 14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz + - D. 14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz +- [[G4D10]] (A) +How close to the lower edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB? #card + - A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment + - B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment + - C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment + - D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment +- [[G4D11]] (B) +How close to the upper edge of a band’s phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB? #card + - A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band + - B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band + - C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment + - D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment diff --git a/pages/G4E.md b/pages/G4E.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..e8ab4c3 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G4E.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G4E – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation + +- [[G4E01]] (C) +What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna? #card + - A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna + - B. To reduce radiation resistance + - C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna + - D. To lower the radiation angle +- [[G4E02]] (D) +What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna? #card + - A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna + - B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna + - C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object + - D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting +- [[G4E03]] (A) +Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation? #card + - A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire + - B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire + - C. To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line + - D. To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line +- [[G4E04]] (B) +Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket? #card + - A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable + - B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver + - C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers + - D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat +- [[G4E05]] (C) +Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation? #card + - A. “Picket fencing” + - B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver + - C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna + - D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band +- [[G4E06]] (C) +What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna? #card + - A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals + - B. Q of the antenna will be very low + - C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited + - D. Harmonic radiation may increase +- [[G4E07]] (D) +Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle? #card + - A. The battery charging system + - B. The fuel delivery system + - C. The control computers + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G4E08]] (A) +In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together? #card + - A. Series-parallel + - B. Shunt + - C. Bypass + - D. Full-wave bridge +- [[G4E09]] (B) +What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? #card + - A. 0.02 VDC + - B. 0.5 VDC + - C. 0.2 VDC + - D. 1.38 VDC +- [[G4E10]] (B) +Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel? #card + - A. To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage + - B. To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination + - C. To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value + - D. To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels +- [[G4E11]] (D) +What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery? #card + - A. Ground the solar panel outer metal framework + - B. Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up + - C. A series resistor must be in place + - D. The solar panel must have a charge controller diff --git a/pages/G5A.md b/pages/G5A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..65a44dd --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G5A.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G5A – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance + +- [[G5A01]] (C) +What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit? #card + - A. Resonance causes impedance to be very high + - B. Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance + - C. Resonance causes impedance to be very low + - D. Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance +- [[G5A02]] (B) +What is reactance? #card + - A. Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance + - B. Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance + - C. Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance + - D. Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance +- [[G5A03]] (D) +Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor? #card + - A. Conductance + - B. Reluctance + - C. Admittance + - D. Reactance +- [[G5A04]] (C) +Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor? #card + - A. Conductance + - B. Reluctance + - C. Reactance + - D. Admittance +- [[G5A05]] (D) +How does an inductor react to AC? #card + - A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases +- [[G5A06]] (A) +How does a capacitor react to AC? #card + - A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases + - B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases + - D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases +- [[G5A07]] (D) +What is the term for the inverse of impedance? #card + - A. Conductance + - B. Susceptance + - C. Reluctance + - D. Admittance +- [[G5A08]] (C) +What is impedance? #card + - A. The ratio of current to voltage + - B. The product of current and voltage + - C. The ratio of voltage to current + - D. The product of current and reactance +- [[G5A09]] (B) +What unit is used to measure reactance? #card + - A. Farad + - B. Ohm + - C. Ampere + - D. Siemens +- [[G5A10]] (D) +Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies? #card + - A. A transformer + - B. A Pi-network + - C. A length of transmission line + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G5A11]] (B) +What letter is used to represent reactance? #card + - A. Z + - B. X + - C. B + - D. Y +- [[G5A12]] (D) +What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance? + - A. Current and voltage are equal + - B. Resistance is cancelled + - C. The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves + - D. Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel diff --git a/pages/G5B.md b/pages/G5B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..250821e --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G5B.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G5B – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations + +- [[G5B01]] (B) +What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power? #card + - A. Approximately 2 dB + - B. Approximately 3 dB + - C. Approximately 6 dB + - D. Approximately 9 dB +- [[G5B02]] (C) +How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors? #card + - A. It equals the average of the branch currents + - B. It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit + - C. It equals the sum of the currents through each branch + - D. It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop +- [[G5B03]] (B) +How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load? #card + - A. 0.5 watts + - B. 200 watts + - C. 400 watts + - D. 3200 watts +- [[G5B04]] (A) +How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes? #card + - A. 2.4 watts + - B. 24 watts + - C. 6 watts + - D. 60 watts +- [[G5B05]] (A) +How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance? #card + - A. Approximately 61 milliwatts + - B. Approximately 61 watts + - C. Approximately 11 milliwatts + - D. Approximately 11 watts +- [[G5B06]] (B) +What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load? #card + - A. 1.4 watts + - B. 100 watts + - C. 353.5 watts + - D. 400 watts +- [[G5B07]] (C) +What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value? #card + - A. The peak-to-peak value + - B. The peak value + - C. The RMS value + - D. The reciprocal of the RMS value +- [[G5B08]] (D) +What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts? #card + - A. 84.8 volts + - B. 169.7 volts + - C. 240.0 volts + - D. 339.4 volts +- [[G5B09]] (B) +What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak? #card + - A. 8.5 volts + - B. 12 volts + - C. 24 volts + - D. 34 volts +- [[G5B10]] (C) +What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB? #card + - A. 10.9 percent + - B. 12.2 percent + - C. 20.6 percent + - D. 25.9 percent +- [[G5B11]] (B) +What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier? #card + - A. 0.707 + - B. 1.00 + - C. 1.414 + - D. 2.00 +- [[G5B12]] (B) +What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? #card + - A. 173 volts + - B. 245 volts + - C. 346 volts + - D. 692 volts +- [[G5B13]] (B) +What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts? #card + - A. 530 watts + - B. 1060 watts + - C. 1500 watts + - D. 2120 watts +- [[G5B14]] (B) +What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load? #card + - A. 8.75 watts + - B. 625 watts + - C. 2500 watts + - D. 5000 watts diff --git a/pages/G5C.md b/pages/G5C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..a066213 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G5C.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G5C – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers + +- [[G5C01]] (C) +What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding? #card + - A. Capacitive coupling + - B. Displacement current coupling + - C. Mutual inductance + - D. Mutual capacitance +- [[G5C02]] (A) +What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding? #card + - A. The input voltage is multiplied by 4 + - B. The input voltage is divided by 4 + - C. Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload + - D. Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload +- [[G5C03]] (A) +What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel? #card + - A. 5.9 ohms + - B. 0.17 ohms + - C. 17 ohms + - D. 80 ohms +- [[G5C04]] (D) +What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel? #card + - A. 300 ohms + - B. 150 ohms + - C. 75 ohms + - D. 67 ohms +- [[G5C05]] (B) +Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding? #card + - A. To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary + - B. To accommodate the higher current of the primary + - C. To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary + - D. To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding +- [[G5C06]] (A) +What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary? #card + - A. 360 volts + - B. 120 volts + - C. 40 volts + - D. 25.5 volts +- [[G5C07]] (A) +What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna’s 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable? #card + - A. 3.5 to 1 + - B. 12 to 1 + - C. 24 to 1 + - D. 144 to 1 +- [[G5C08]] (D) +What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel? #card + - A. 576.9 nanofarads + - B. 1,733 picofarads + - C. 3,583 picofarads + - D. 10.750 nanofarads +- [[G5C09]] (C) +What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series? #card + - A. 0.33 microfarads + - B. 3.0 microfarads + - C. 33.3 microfarads + - D. 300 microfarads +- [[G5C10]] (C) +What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel? #card + - A. 0.30 henries + - B. 3.3 henries + - C. 3.3 millihenries + - D. 30 millihenries +- [[G5C11]] (C) +What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor? #card + - A. 7 millihenries + - B. 14.3 millihenries + - C. 70 millihenries + - D. 1,000 millihenries +- [[G5C12]] (B) +What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor? #card + - A. 0.07 microfarads + - B. 14.3 microfarads + - C. 70 microfarads + - D. 1,000 microfarads +- [[G5C13]] (C) +Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance? #card + - A. An inductor in series + - B. An inductor in parallel + - C. A capacitor in parallel + - D. A capacitor in series +- [[G5C14]] (D) +Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance? #card + - A. A capacitor in series + - B. A capacitor in parallel + - C. An inductor in parallel + - D. An inductor in series diff --git a/pages/G6A.md b/pages/G6A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c97b36f --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G6A.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G6A – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries + +- [[G6A01]] (C) +What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery? #card + - A. 6 volts + - B. 8.5 volts + - C. 10.5 volts + - D. 12 volts +- [[G6A02]] (B) +What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance? #card + - A. Long life + - B. High discharge current + - C. High voltage + - D. Rapid recharge +- [[G6A03]] (B) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode? #card + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +- [[G6A04]] (C) +Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor? #card + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. Much less leakage than any other type + - C. High capacitance for a given volume + - D. Inexpensive RF capacitor +- [[G6A05]] (C) +What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode? #card + - A. 0.1 volt + - B. 0.3 volts + - C. 0.7 volts + - D. 1.0 volts +- [[G6A06]] (B) +Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits? #card + - A. The resistor’s tolerance value would not be adequate + - B. The resistor’s inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable + - C. The resistor could overheat + - D. The resistor’s internal capacitance would detune the circuit +- [[G6A07]] (A) +What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch? #card + - A. Saturation and cutoff + - B. The active region (between cutoff and saturation) + - C. Peak and valley current points + - D. Enhancement and depletion modes +- [[G6A08]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors? #card + - A. Tight tolerance + - B. High stability + - C. High capacitance for given volume + - D. Comparatively low cost +- [[G6A09]] (B) +Which of the following describes MOSFET construction? #card + - A. The gate is formed by a back-biased junction + - B. The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer + - C. The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer + - D. The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon +- [[G6A10]] (A) +Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? #card + - A. Control grid + - B. Suppressor grid + - C. Screen grid + - D. Trigger electrode +- [[G6A11]] (C) +What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency? #card + - A. Its reactance increases + - B. Harmonics are generated + - C. It becomes capacitive + - D. Catastrophic failure is likely +- [[G6A12]] (A) +What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? #card + - A. To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance + - B. To increase efficiency + - C. To increase the control grid resistance + - D. To decrease plate resistance diff --git a/pages/G6B.md b/pages/G6B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c0df5e2 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G6B.md @@ -0,0 +1,71 @@ +G6B – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores + +- [[G6B01]] (C) +What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies? #card + - A. Its conductivity + - B. Its thickness + - C. The composition, or “mix,” of materials used + - D. The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter +- [[G6B02]] (B) +What is meant by the term MMIC? #card + - A. Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit + - B. Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit + - C. Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit + - D. Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit +- [[G6B03]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits? #card + - A. Low power consumption + - B. High power handling capability + - C. Better suited for RF amplification + - D. Better suited for power supply regulation +- [[G6B04]] (C) +What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors? #card + - A. 50 MHz + - B. 500 MHz + - C. 4 GHz + - D. 40 GHz +- [[G6B05]] (D) +What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor? #card + - A. Large values of inductance may be obtained + - B. The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies + - C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G6B06]] (D) +What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? #card + - A. Digital + - B. MMIC + - C. Programmable Logic + - D. Analog +- [[G6B07]] (A) +Which of the following describes a type N connector? #card + - A. A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz + - B. A small bayonet connector used for data circuits + - C. A low noise figure VHF connector + - D. A nickel plated version of the PL-259 +- [[G6B08]] (D) +How is an LED biased when emitting light? #card + - A. In the tunnel-effect region + - B. At the Zener voltage + - C. Reverse biased + - D. Forward biased +- [[G6B09]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + +- [[G6B10]] (A) +How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable? #card + - A. By creating an impedance in the current’s path + - B. It converts common-mode current to differential mode current + - C. By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current + - D. Ferrites expel magnetic fields +- [[G6B11]] (B) +What is an SMA connector? #card + - A. A type-S to type-M adaptor + - B. A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz + - C. A connector designed for serial multiple access signals + - D. A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications +- [[G6B12]] (C) +Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver? #card + - A. PL-259 + - B. BNC + - C. RCA Phono + - D. Type N diff --git a/pages/G7-1.md b/pages/G7-1.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..853e810 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G7-1.md @@ -0,0 +1,2 @@ +- ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) +- \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/pages/G7A.md b/pages/G7A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..1e78f7b --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G7A.md @@ -0,0 +1,85 @@ +G7A – Power supplies; schematic symbols + +- [[G7A01]] (B) + What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor? #card + - A. It acts as a fuse for excess voltage + - B. It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed + - C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils + - D. It eliminates ground loop current +- [[G7A02]] (C) + Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network? #card + - A. Diodes + - B. Transformers and transducers + - C. Capacitors and inductors + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G7A03]] (A) + Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer? #card + - A. Full-wave + - B. Full-wave bridge + - C. Half-wave + - D. Synchronous +- [[G7A04]] (A) + What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply? #card + - A. Only one diode is required + - B. The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier + - C. More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier + - D. The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage +- [[G7A05]] (B) + What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier? #card + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +- [[G7A06]] (D) + What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier? #card + - A. 90 degrees + - B. 180 degrees + - C. 270 degrees + - D. 360 degrees +- [[G7A07]] (A) + What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? #card + - A. A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input + - B. A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input + - C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input + - D. A steady DC voltage +- [[G7A08]] (C) + Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply? #card + - A. Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible + - B. Fewer circuit components are required + - C. High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components + - D. Inherently more stable +- [[G7A09]] (C) + Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? #card + ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) + - A. Symbol 2 + - B. Symbol 5 + - C. Symbol 1 + - D. Symbol 4 +- [[G7A10]] (D) + Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? #card + ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 1 + - C. Symbol 11 + - D. Symbol 5 +- [[G7A11]] (B) + Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? #card + ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) + - A. Symbol 1 + - B. Symbol 2 + - C. Symbol 7 + - D. Symbol 11 +- [[G7A12]] (C) + Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer? #card + ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) + - A. Symbol 4 + - B. Symbol 7 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 +- [[G7A13]] (A) + Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? #card + ![image.png](../assets/image_1746125643370_0.png) + - A. Symbol 7 + - B. Symbol 11 + - C. Symbol 6 + - D. Symbol 1 \ No newline at end of file diff --git a/pages/G7B.md b/pages/G7B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..23df72e --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G7B.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G7B – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators + +- [[G7B01]] (B) +What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier? #card + - A. To limit the modulation index + - B. To eliminate self-oscillations + - C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods + - D. To keep the carrier on frequency +- [[G7B02]] (D) +Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? #card + - A. Class A + - B. Class B + - C. Class AB + - D. Class C +- [[G7B03]] (B) +Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate? #card + - A. Output is high when either or both inputs are low + - B. Output is high only when both inputs are high + - C. Output is low when either or both inputs are high + - D. Output is low only when both inputs are high +- [[G7B04]] (A) +In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct? #card + - A. 100% + - B. More than 50% but less than 100% + - C. 50% + - D. Less than 50% +- [[G7B05]] (C) +How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? #card + - A. 3 + - B. 6 + - C. 8 + - D. 16 +- [[G7B06]] (A) +What is a shift register? #card + - A. A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array + - B. An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations + - C. A digital mixer + - D. An analog mixer +- [[G7B07]] (D) +Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator? #card + - A. An amplifier and a divider + - B. A frequency multiplier and a mixer + - C. A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop + - D. A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop +- [[G7B08]] (B) +How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? #card + - A. Divide the DC input power by the DC output power + - B. Divide the RF output power by the DC input power + - C. Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power + - D. Add the RF input power to the DC output power +- [[G7B09]] (C) +What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator? #card + - A. The number of stages in the counter + - B. The number of stages in the divider + - C. The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit + - D. The time delay of the lag circuit +- [[G7B10]] (B) +Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? #card + - A. Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver + - B. An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform + - C. A Class C high efficiency amplifier + - D. An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier +- [[G7B11]] (B) +For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? #card + - A. SSB + - B. FM + - C. AM + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/pages/G7C.md b/pages/G7C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..3be1b92 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G7C.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G7C – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP) + +- [[G7C01]] (B) +What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator? #card + - A. Carrier oscillator + - B. Filter + - C. IF amplifier + - D. RF amplifier +- [[G7C02]] (D) +What output is produced by a balanced modulator? #card + - A. Frequency modulated RF + - B. Audio with equalized frequency response + - C. Audio extracted from the modulation signal + - D. Double-sideband modulated RF +- [[G7C03]] (B) +What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output? #card + - A. To minimize transmitter power output + - B. To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line + - C. To reduce power supply ripple + - D. To minimize radiation resistance +- [[G7C04]] (D) +How is a product detector used? #card + - A. Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products + - B. Used in transmitter to perform frequency multiplication + - C. Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands + - D. Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal +- [[G7C05]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)? #card + - A. Extremely narrow tuning range + - B. Relatively high-power output + - C. Pure sine wave output + - D. Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator +- [[G7C06]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter? #card + - A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created + - B. Fewer digital components are required + - C. Mixing products are greatly reduced + - D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies +- [[G7C07]] (A) +What term specifies a filter’s attenuation inside its passband? #card + - A. Insertion loss + - B. Return loss + - C. Q + - D. Ultimate rejection +- [[G7C08]] (D) +Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity? #card + - A. Input amplifier gain + - B. Demodulator stage bandwidth + - C. Input amplifier noise figure + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G7C09]] (B) +What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation? #card + - A. Zero + - B. 90 degrees + - C. 180 degrees + - D. 45 degrees +- [[G7C10]] (B) +What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)? #card + - A. The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated + - B. All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing + - C. Minimum detectible signal level is reduced + - D. Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog +- [[G7C11]] (D) +Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)? #card + - A. Filtering + - B. Detection + - C. Modulation + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G7C12]] (C) +What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter’s output power is less than half the input power? #card + - A. Notch frequency + - B. Neper frequency + - C. Cutoff frequency + - D. Rolloff frequency +- [[G7C13]] (D) +What term specifies a filter’s maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband? #card + - A. Notch depth + - B. Rolloff + - C. Insertion loss + - D. Ultimate rejection +- [[G7C14]] (A) +The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies? #card + - A. Upper and lower half-power + - B. Cutoff and rolloff + - C. Pole and zero + - D. Image and harmonic diff --git a/pages/G8A.md b/pages/G8A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..35d7ee8 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G8A.md @@ -0,0 +1,86 @@ +G8A – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins + +- [[G8A01]] (B) +How is direct binary FSK modulation generated? #card + - A. By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone + - B. By changing an oscillator’s frequency directly with a digital control signal + - C. By using a transceiver’s computer data interface protocol to change frequencies + - D. By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator +- [[G8A02]] (B) +What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information? #card + - A. Phase convolution + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Phase transformation + - D. Phase inversion +- [[G8A03]] (D) +What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information? #card + - A. Frequency convolution + - B. Frequency transformation + - C. Frequency conversion + - D. Frequency modulation +- [[G8A04]] (B) +What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage? #card + - A. Multiplex modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Amplitude modulation + - D. Pulse modulation +- [[G8A05]] (D) +What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? #card + - A. Power modulation + - B. Phase modulation + - C. Frequency modulation + - D. Amplitude modulation +- [[G8A06]] (D) +Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31? #card + - A. It is sideband sensitive + - B. Its encoding provides error correction + - C. Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31 + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G8A07]] (A) +Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth? #card + - A. Single sideband + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Phase modulation + - D. Frequency modulation +- [[G8A08]] (D) +Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation? #card + - A. Insufficient audio + - B. Insufficient bandwidth + - C. Frequency drift + - D. Excessive bandwidth +- [[G8A09]] (A) +What type of modulation is used by FT8? #card + - A. 8-tone frequency shift keying + - B. Vestigial sideband + - C. Amplitude compressed AM + - D. 8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum +- [[G8A10]] (C) +What is meant by the term “flat-topping,” when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal? #card + - A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current + - B. The transmitter’s automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted + - C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels + - D. The transmitter’s carrier is properly suppressed +- [[G8A11]] (A) +What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal? #card + - A. The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal + - B. The carrier frequency that contains the signal + - C. Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies + - D. The bandwidth of the modulated signal +- [[G8A12]] (D) +What is QPSK modulation? #card + - A. Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth + - B. Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals + - C. Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity + - D. Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits +- [[G8A13]] (C) +What is a link budget? #card + - A. The financial costs associated with operating a radio link + - B. The sum of antenna gains minus system losses + - C. The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver + - D. The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity +- [[G8A14]] (B) +What is link margin? #card + - A. The opposite of fade margin + - B. The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver + - C. Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity + - D. Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB diff --git a/pages/G8B.md b/pages/G8B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..ce89ddd --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G8B.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G8B – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation + +- [[G8B01]] (B) +Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)? #card + - A. Image frequency + - B. Local oscillator + - C. RF input + - D. Beat frequency oscillator +- [[G8B02]] (B) +What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal? #card + - A. Quadrature response + - B. Image response + - C. Mixer interference + - D. Intermediate interference +- [[G8B03]] (A) +What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals? #card + - A. Heterodyning + - B. Synthesizing + - C. Frequency inversion + - D. Phase inversion +- [[G8B04]] (D) +What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency? #card + - A. Mixer + - B. Reactance modulator + - C. Balanced converter + - D. Multiplier +- [[G8B05]] (C) +Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies? #card + - A. Second harmonics + - B. Even-order + - C. Odd-order + - D. Intercept point +- [[G8B06]] (D) +What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency? #card + - A. 3 kHz + - B. 5 kHz + - C. 8 kHz + - D. 16 kHz +- [[G8B07]] (B) +What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter? #card + - A. 101.75 Hz + - B. 416.7 Hz + - C. 5 kHz + - D. 60 kHz +- [[G8B08]] (B) +Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting? #card + - A. To aid in tuning your transmitter + - B. Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter’s average power rating + - C. To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission + - D. To prevent overmodulation +- [[G8B09]] (D) +Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode? #card + - A. It is required by FCC rules + - B. It minimizes power consumption in the receiver + - C. It improves impedance matching of the antenna + - D. It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio +- [[G8B10]] (B) +What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth? #card + - A. Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related + - B. Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth + - C. Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth + - D. Bandwidth is half the symbol rate +- [[G8B11]] (C) +What combination of a mixer’s Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output? #card + - A. The ratio + - B. The average + - C. The sum and difference + - D. The arithmetic product +- [[G8B12]] (A) +What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs? #card + - A. Intermodulation + - B. Heterodyning + - C. Detection + - D. Rolloff +- [[G8B13]] (C) +Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2? #card + - A. 5F1-3F2 + - B. 3F1-F2 + - C. 2F1-F2 + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/pages/G8C.md b/pages/G8C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..c9251cb --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G8C.md @@ -0,0 +1,98 @@ +G8C – Digital emission modes + +- [[G8C01]] (C) +On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service? #card + - A. 432 MHz + - B. 902 MHz + - C. 2.4 GHz + - D. 10.7 GHz +- [[G8C02]] (A) +Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation? #card + - A. WSPR + - B. MFSK16 + - C. PSK31 + - D. SSB-SC +- [[G8C03]] (C) +What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information? #card + - A. Directory + - B. Preamble + - C. Header + - D. Trailer +- [[G8C04]] (C) +Which of the following describes Baudot code? #card + - A. A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits + - B. A code using error detection and correction + - C. A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits + - D. A code using SELCAL and LISTEN +- [[G8C05]] (A) +In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet? #card + - A. Request retransmission of the packet + - B. Packet was received without error + - C. Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions + - D. Entire file received correctly +- [[G8C06]] (B) +What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode? #card + - A. The checksum overflows + - B. The connection is dropped + - C. Packets will be routed incorrectly + - D. Encoding reverts to the default character set +- [[G8C07]] (B) +Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios? #card + - A. MSK144 + - B. FT8 + - C. AMTOR + - D. MFSK32 +- [[G8C08]] (B) +Which of the following statements is true about PSK31? #card + - A. Upper case letters are sent with more power + - B. Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission + - C. Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception + - D. Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates +- [[G8C09]] (B) +Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes? #card + - A. Having more nodes increases signal strengths + - B. If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node + - C. Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths + - D. More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference +- [[G8C10]] (C) +How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors? #card + - A. By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength + - B. By using the Varicode character set + - C. By transmitting redundant information with the data + - D. By using a parity bit with each character +- [[G8C11]] (D) +How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified? #card + - A. Dot and dash + - B. On and off + - C. High and low + - D. Mark and space +- [[G8C12]] (A) +Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal? #card + - A. Varicode + - B. Viterbi + - C. Volumetric + - D. Binary +- [[G8C13]] (D) +What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal? #card + - A. Long path propagation + - B. Backscatter propagation + - C. Insufficient modulation + - D. Overmodulation +- [[G8C14]] (C) +Which of the following describes a waterfall display? #card + - A. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity + - B. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal + - C. Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical + - D. Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity +- [[G8C15]] (C) +What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean? #card + - A. The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal + - B. The signal is S3 (weak signals) + - C. The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth + - D. The signal is 3 dB over S9 +- [[G8C16]] (D) +Which of the following provide digital voice modes? #card + - A. WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL + - B. FT8, FT4, and FST4 + - C. Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III + - D. DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion diff --git a/pages/G9A.md b/pages/G9A.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..4059ae7 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G9A.md @@ -0,0 +1,68 @@ +G9A – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching + +- [[G9A01]] (A) +Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line? #card + - A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors + - B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line + - C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal + - D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line +- [[G9A02]] (B) +What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss? #card + - A. There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR + - B. High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line + - C. High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss + - D. High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss +- [[G9A03]] (D) +What is the nominal characteristic impedance of “window line” transmission line? #card + - A. 50 ohms + - B. 75 ohms + - C. 100 ohms + - D. 450 ohms +- [[G9A04]] (C) +What causes reflected power at an antenna’s feed point? #card + - A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency + - B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle + - C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance + - D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line +- [[G9A05]] (B) +How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency? #card + - A. Attenuation is independent of frequency + - B. Attenuation increases + - C. Attenuation decreases + - D. Attenuation follows Marconi’s Law of Attenuation +- [[G9A06]] (D) +In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed? #card + - A. Ohms per 1,000 feet + - B. Decibels per 1,000 feet + - C. Ohms per 100 feet + - D. Decibels per 100 feet +- [[G9A07]] (D) +What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna? #card + - A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential + - B. The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long + - C. The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long + - D. The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line +- [[G9A08]] (B) +If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line? #card + - A. 1:1 + - B. 5:1 + - C. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line + - D. Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter +- [[G9A09]] (A) +What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load? #card + - A. 4:1 + - B. 1:4 + - C. 2:1 + - D. 1:2 +- [[G9A10]] (D) +What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load? #card + - A. 2:1 + - B. 1:2 + - C. 1:5 + - D. 5:1 +- [[G9A11]] (A) +What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line? #card + - A. Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line + - B. Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line + - C. Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line + - D. Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement diff --git a/pages/G9B.md b/pages/G9B.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..08e953a --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G9B.md @@ -0,0 +1,74 @@ +G9B – Basic dipole and monopole antennas + +- [[G9B01]] (B) +What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter? #card + - A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength + - B. Station equipment may carry significant RF current + - C. It produces only vertically polarized radiation + - D. It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands +- [[G9B02]] (B) +Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms? #card + - A. Slope the radials upward + - B. Slope the radials downward + - C. Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength + - D. Coil the radials +- [[G9B03]] (D) +Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna? #card + - A. Bi-directional in azimuth + - B. Isotropic + - C. Hemispherical + - D. Omnidirectional in azimuth +- [[G9B04]] (A) +What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor? #card + - A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna + - B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna + - C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) + - D. It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side +- [[G9B05]] (C) +How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees? #card + - A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable + - B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern + - C. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional + - D. If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated +- [[G9B06]] (C) +Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed? #card + - A. As high as possible above the ground + - B. Parallel to the antenna element + - C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground + - D. At the center of the antenna +- [[G9B07]] (B) +How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground? #card + - A. It steadily increases + - B. It steadily decreases + - C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground + - D. It is unaffected by the height above ground +- [[G9B08]] (A) +How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends? #card + - A. It steadily increases + - B. It steadily decreases + - C. It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end + - D. It is unaffected by the location of the feed point +- [[G9B09]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna? #card + - A. Lower ground losses + - B. Lower feed point impedance + - C. Shorter radials + - D. Lower radiation resistance +- [[G9B10]] (D) +What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz? #card + - A. 8 feet + - B. 16 feet + - C. 24 feet + - D. 33 feet +- [[G9B11]] (C) +What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz? #card + - A. 42 feet + - B. 84 feet + - C. 132 feet + - D. 263 feet +- [[G9B12]] (A) +What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz? #card + - A. 8 feet + - B. 11 feet + - C. 16 feet + - D. 21 feet diff --git a/pages/G9C.md b/pages/G9C.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..8785007 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G9C.md @@ -0,0 +1,71 @@ +G9C – Directional antennas + +- [[G9C01]] (A) +Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. Larger-diameter elements + - B. Closer element spacing + - C. Loading coils in series with the element + - D. Tapered-diameter elements +- [[G9C02]] (B) +What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. 1/4 wavelength + - B. 1/2 wavelength + - C. 3/4 wavelength + - D. 1 wavelength +- [[G9C03]] (A) +How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element? #card + - A. The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter + - B. The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer + - C. They are all the same length + - D. Relative length depends on the frequency of operation +- [[G9C04]] (B) +How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna? #card + - A. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower + - B. Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher + - C. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower + - D. Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher +- [[G9C05]] (A) +What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. Gain increases + - B. Beamwidth increases + - C. Front-to-back ratio decreases + - D. Resonant frequency is lower +- [[G9C06]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + +- [[G9C07]] (C) +What does “front-to-back ratio” mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors + - B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors + - C. The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction + - D. The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain +- [[G9C08]] (D) +What is meant by the “main lobe” of a directive antenna? #card + - A. The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation + - B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element + - C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element + - D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna +- [[G9C09]] (B) +In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi? #card + - A. Approximately 1.5 dB higher + - B. Approximately 3 dB higher + - C. Approximately 6 dB higher + - D. Approximately 9 dB higher +- [[G9C10]] (D) +Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. The physical length of the boom + - B. The number of elements on the boom + - C. The spacing of each element along the boom + - D. All these choices are correct +- [[G9C11]] (A) +What is a beta or hairpin match? #card + - A. A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching + - B. A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching + - C. A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna + - D. A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna +- [[G9C12]] (A) +Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna? #card + - A. It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom + - B. It does not require any inductors or capacitors + - C. It is useful for matching multiband antennas + - D. All these choices are correct diff --git a/pages/G9D.md b/pages/G9D.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..b7f22b2 --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/G9D.md @@ -0,0 +1,80 @@ +G9D – Specialized antenna types and applications + +- [[G9D01]] (A) +Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day? #card + - A. A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground + - B. A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - C. A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground + - D. A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground +- [[G9D02]] (D) +What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna? #card + - A. Very low + - B. Approximately 50 ohms + - C. Approximately 300 ohms + - D. Very high +- [[G9D03]] (C) +In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF “halo” antenna? #card + - A. Broadside to the plane of the halo + - B. Opposite the feed point + - C. Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo + - D. On the same side as the feed point +- [[G9D04]] (A) +What is the primary function of antenna traps? #card + - A. To enable multiband operation + - B. To notch spurious frequencies + - C. To provide balanced feed point impedance + - D. To prevent out-of-band operation +- [[G9D05]] (D) +What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas? #card + - A. It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization + - B. It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization + - C. It narrows the main lobe in azimuth + - D. It narrows the main lobe in elevation +- [[G9D06]] (A) +Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna? #card + - A. Wide bandwidth + - B. Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna + - C. Harmonic suppression + - D. Polarization diversity +- [[G9D07]] (A) +Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna? #card + - A. Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom + - B. Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency + - C. Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency + - D. SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length +- [[G9D08]] (B) +How does a “screwdriver” mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance? #card + - A. By varying its body capacitance + - B. By varying the base loading inductance + - C. By extending and retracting the whip + - D. By deploying a capacitance hat +- [[G9D09]] (A) +What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna? #card + - A. Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands + - B. Directional transmitting for low HF bands + - C. Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies + - D. Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies +- [[G9D10]] (B) +In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern? #card + - A. In the plane of the loop + - B. Broadside to the loop + - C. Broadside and in the plane of the loop + - D. Electrically small loops are omnidirectional +- [[G9D11]] (D) +Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas? #card + - A. They present low impedance on all design frequencies + - B. They must be used with an antenna tuner + - C. They must be fed with open wire line + - D. They have poor harmonic rejection +- [[G9D12]] (A) +What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support? #card + - A. Inverted V + - B. Inverted L + - C. Sloper + - D. Lazy H +- [[G9D13]] Question Removed (section not renumbered) + + + +SUBELEMENT G0 – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] + diff --git a/pages/General Syllabus.md b/pages/General Syllabus.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..f77c20a --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/General Syllabus.md @@ -0,0 +1,45 @@ +- [[SUBELEMENT G1]] – COMMISSION’S RULES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] 57 Questions + - [[G1A]] – General class control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations + - [[G1B]] – Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals + - [[G1C]] – Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards; 60-meter operation requirements + - [[G1D]] – Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner Coordinators; temporary identification; element credit; remote operation + - [[G1E]] – Control categories; repeater regulations; third-party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station +- [[SUBELEMENT G2]] – OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] 60 Questions + - [[G2A]] – Phone operating procedures: USB/LSB conventions, breaking into a contact, transmitter setup for voice operation; answering DX stations + - [[G2B]] – Operating effectively; band plans; drills and emergencies; RACES operation + - [[G2C]] – CW operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals; full break-in + - [[G2D]] – Volunteer Monitor Program; HF operations + - [[G2E]] – Digital mode operating procedures +- [[SUBELEMENT G3]] – RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 37 Questions + - [[G3A]] – Sunspots and solar radiation; geomagnetic field and stability indices + - [[G3B]] – Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; short path and long path propagation; determining propagation conditions; ionospheric refraction + - [[G3C]] – Ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) +- [[SUBELEMENT G4]] – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions – 5 groups] 60 Questions + - [[G4A]] – Station configuration and operation + - [[G4B]] – Tests and test equipment + - [[G4C]] – Interference to consumer electronics; grounding and bonding + - [[G4D]] – Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges + - [[G4E]] – Mobile and portable HF stations; alternative energy source operation +- [[SUBELEMENT G5]] – ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 40 Questions + - [[G5A]] – Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance transformation; resonance + - [[G5B]] – The decibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations + - [[G5C]] – Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers +- [[SUBELEMENT G6]] – CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] 24 Questions + - [[G6A]] – Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers; solid-state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries + - [[G6B]] – Analog and digital integrated circuits (ICs); microwave ICs (MMICs); display devices; RF connectors; ferrite cores +- [[SUBELEMENT G7]] – PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 38 Questions + - [[G7A]] – Power supplies; schematic symbols + - [[G7B]] – Digital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators + - [[G7C]] – Transceiver design; filters; oscillators; digital signal processing (DSP) +- [[SUBELEMENT G8]] – SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [3 Exam Questions – 3 Groups] 43 Questions + - [[G8A]] – Carriers and modulation: AM, FM, and single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation; link budgets and link margins + - [[G8B]] – Frequency changing; bandwidths of various modes; deviation; intermodulation + - [[G8C]] – Digital emission modes +- [[SUBELEMENT G9]] – ANTENNAS AND FEED LINES [4 Exam Questions – 4 Groups] 46 Questions + - [[G9A]] – Feed lines: characteristic impedance and attenuation; standing wave ratio (SWR) calculation, measurement, and effects; antenna feed point matching + - [[G9B]] – Basic dipole and monopole antennas + - [[G9C]] – Directional antennas + - [[G9D]] – Specialized antenna types and applications +- [[SUBELEMENT G0]] – ELECTRICAL AND RF SAFETY [2 Exam Questions – 2 Groups] 25 Questions + - [[G0A]] – RF safety principles, rules, and guidelines; routine station evaluation + - [[G0B]] – Station safety: electrical shock, grounding, fusing, interlocks, and wiring; antenna and tower safety diff --git a/pages/contents.md b/pages/contents.md new file mode 100644 index 0000000..bc34dae --- /dev/null +++ b/pages/contents.md @@ -0,0 +1,13 @@ +- [[About]] +- [[General Syllabus]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G1]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G2]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G3]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G4]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G5]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G6]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G7]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G8]] + - [[SUBELEMENT G9]] +- [[Diagrams] + - [[G7-1]] \ No newline at end of file